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Question 1 of 88
1. Question
Which of the following antiepileptic medications does not induce the CYP 450 3A4 enzyme system?
Correct
Carbamazepine, phenytoin, phenobarbital all induce CYP 450 3A4 enzymes, leading to decreased levels of co-administered drugs that are degraded by this enzyme. Important substrates are oral contraceptives, Warfarin, atypical antipsychotics, imipramine, methadone, statins, and some antineoplastic agents. In addition, since carbamazepine is also metabolized by 3A4, it can “auto-induce” its own metabolism, leading to its own decreased serum levels. Valproic acid can increase the levels of several co-administered drugs through a variety of metabolic pathways; however, it has no induction properties. Of most significance in psychiatry, valproic acid can increase levels of lamotrigine (thereby increasing the risk of developing a rash), carbamazepine, and amitriptyline.
Johannessen SI, Landmark C: Antiepileptic drug interactions – principles and clinical implications. Current Neuropharmacol 2010; 8; 254-267
Ciraulo D, Shader I, et al: Drug Interactions in Psychiatry, 3rd ed. Lippincott Williams &Wilkins 2006
Incorrect
Carbamazepine, phenytoin, phenobarbital all induce CYP 450 3A4 enzymes, leading to decreased levels of co-administered drugs that are degraded by this enzyme. Important substrates are oral contraceptives, Warfarin, atypical antipsychotics, imipramine, methadone, statins, and some antineoplastic agents. In addition, since carbamazepine is also metabolized by 3A4, it can “auto-induce” its own metabolism, leading to its own decreased serum levels. Valproic acid can increase the levels of several co-administered drugs through a variety of metabolic pathways; however, it has no induction properties. Of most significance in psychiatry, valproic acid can increase levels of lamotrigine (thereby increasing the risk of developing a rash), carbamazepine, and amitriptyline.
Johannessen SI, Landmark C: Antiepileptic drug interactions – principles and clinical implications. Current Neuropharmacol 2010; 8; 254-267
Ciraulo D, Shader I, et al: Drug Interactions in Psychiatry, 3rd ed. Lippincott Williams &Wilkins 2006
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Question 2 of 88
2. Question
A 26-year-old male is found partially undressed wandering in the snow. When the police approach him he is aggressive and assaultive. He appears insensitive to pain. Several officers are required to restrain him. Upon arrival in the ER, he is found to have elevated BP, tachycardia, and vertical nystagmus. He is also noted to have muscle rigidity and some ataxia. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
PCP intoxication is characterized by unpredictable and violent behavior. Dissociative and psychotic symptoms can occur. Individuals frequently are agitated, impulsive, and exhibit decreased sensitivity to pain. Physical findings include autonomic hyperactivity, muscle rigidity, and ataxia. Although rotary or horizontal nystagmus may be observed, vertical nystagmus is virtually pathognomonic of PCP intoxication. It is not seen with any other drugs of abuse. Treatment includes placing the patient in a quiet area with low stimulation. Acidification of the urine with ammonium chloride or ascorbic acid can expedite drug excretion. Haloperidol and/or a benzodiazepine may be useful for agitation and psychosis.
Leamon MH, Wright T, Myrick, H: Chapter 9. Substance-Related Disorders, (in) Hales R, et.al. The American Psychiatric Publishing Textbook of Psychiatry, 5th ed. American Psychiatric Publishing, 2008
Weaver M, Schnoll SH: Chapter 14. Hallucinogens and Club Drugs (in) Galanter M. et. al. The American Psychiatric Publishing Textbook of Substance Abuse Treatment, 4th ed. American Psychiatric Publishing, 2008
Incorrect
PCP intoxication is characterized by unpredictable and violent behavior. Dissociative and psychotic symptoms can occur. Individuals frequently are agitated, impulsive, and exhibit decreased sensitivity to pain. Physical findings include autonomic hyperactivity, muscle rigidity, and ataxia. Although rotary or horizontal nystagmus may be observed, vertical nystagmus is virtually pathognomonic of PCP intoxication. It is not seen with any other drugs of abuse. Treatment includes placing the patient in a quiet area with low stimulation. Acidification of the urine with ammonium chloride or ascorbic acid can expedite drug excretion. Haloperidol and/or a benzodiazepine may be useful for agitation and psychosis.
Leamon MH, Wright T, Myrick, H: Chapter 9. Substance-Related Disorders, (in) Hales R, et.al. The American Psychiatric Publishing Textbook of Psychiatry, 5th ed. American Psychiatric Publishing, 2008
Weaver M, Schnoll SH: Chapter 14. Hallucinogens and Club Drugs (in) Galanter M. et. al. The American Psychiatric Publishing Textbook of Substance Abuse Treatment, 4th ed. American Psychiatric Publishing, 2008
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Question 3 of 88
3. Question
A consulting psychiatrist is asked to evaluate a 25-year-old actress who the medical service has called “manic.” The psychiatrist finds that she has word-finding difficulties and memory impairment as well as inattention, pressured speech, and a flight of ideas. She adamantly denies drug and alcohol use, any symptoms prior to ten days before her hospitalization, and family history of psychiatric illness. A neurologist confirms the psychiatrist’s findings and also notes myoclonic left hand movements. An EEG and MRI both show minor, nonspecific abnormalities, but the CSF shows a lymphocytic pleocytosis and elevated protein. Another consultant finds a cystic ovarian mass of mixed density. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
Psychiatric symptoms may be the first or most prominent manifestation of NMDA-receptor encephalitis – a recently described cause of delirium. In addition to mood and thought disturbances, seizures and involuntary movements, which mimic myoclonus, occur regularly. Ovarian teratomas frequently give rise to the disorder. Removing a teratoma, if present, will reverse it. Conditions with similar symptoms include infectious encephalitis, non-infectious inflammatory encephalitis, such as lupus, and abuse of PCP or ketamine. NMDA-receptor encephalitis may develop in children as well as individuals, predominantly males, older than 45 years.
Chapman MR, Vause HE: Anti-NMDA receptor encephalitis: Diagnosis, psychiatric presentation, and treatment. Am J Psychiatry 2011; 168: 245-51
Dalmau J, Lancaster E, Martinez-Hernandez E, Rosendeld MR, Balice-Gordon R: Clinical experience and laboratory investigations in patients with anti-NMDAR encephalitis. Lancet Neurol 2011; 10: 63-74
Kayser MS, Titulaer MJ, Gresa-Arribas N, Dalmau J: Frequency and characteristics of isolated psychiatric episodes in anti-N-methyl-D-aspartate receptor encephalitis. 2013; 70: 1133-1139
Incorrect
Psychiatric symptoms may be the first or most prominent manifestation of NMDA-receptor encephalitis – a recently described cause of delirium. In addition to mood and thought disturbances, seizures and involuntary movements, which mimic myoclonus, occur regularly. Ovarian teratomas frequently give rise to the disorder. Removing a teratoma, if present, will reverse it. Conditions with similar symptoms include infectious encephalitis, non-infectious inflammatory encephalitis, such as lupus, and abuse of PCP or ketamine. NMDA-receptor encephalitis may develop in children as well as individuals, predominantly males, older than 45 years.
Chapman MR, Vause HE: Anti-NMDA receptor encephalitis: Diagnosis, psychiatric presentation, and treatment. Am J Psychiatry 2011; 168: 245-51
Dalmau J, Lancaster E, Martinez-Hernandez E, Rosendeld MR, Balice-Gordon R: Clinical experience and laboratory investigations in patients with anti-NMDAR encephalitis. Lancet Neurol 2011; 10: 63-74
Kayser MS, Titulaer MJ, Gresa-Arribas N, Dalmau J: Frequency and characteristics of isolated psychiatric episodes in anti-N-methyl-D-aspartate receptor encephalitis. 2013; 70: 1133-1139
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Question 4 of 88
4. Question
Emergency workers bring six subway passengers to the Emergency Room. They are all delirious, dyspneic, nauseated, and weak, and one is in generalized status epilepticus. They all have copious pulmonary secretions, wheezing, miosis, poor vision, and flaccid paresis with fasciculations. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
Sarin is an organophosphate – a group of chemicals that constitute the active elements of insecticides and pesticides as well as poison gases. Organophosphates inhibit acetylcholinesterase and thereby allow acetylcholine to accumulate, precipitating a cholinergic crisis.
Okumura T, Takasu N, Ishimatsu S, et al: Report on 640 victims of the Tokyo subway sarin attack. Ann Emerg Med 1996; 28 (2): 129-135
Sidell FR, Borak J: Chemical warfare agents: II Nerve agents. Ann Emerg Med 1992; 21 (7): 865-871
Suchard JR: Chemical weapons (in) Goldfrank LR et al: Goldfrank’s Toxicologic Emergencies, 8th edition, McGraw-Hill, New York, 2006, pps 1775-179
Incorrect
Sarin is an organophosphate – a group of chemicals that constitute the active elements of insecticides and pesticides as well as poison gases. Organophosphates inhibit acetylcholinesterase and thereby allow acetylcholine to accumulate, precipitating a cholinergic crisis.
Okumura T, Takasu N, Ishimatsu S, et al: Report on 640 victims of the Tokyo subway sarin attack. Ann Emerg Med 1996; 28 (2): 129-135
Sidell FR, Borak J: Chemical warfare agents: II Nerve agents. Ann Emerg Med 1992; 21 (7): 865-871
Suchard JR: Chemical weapons (in) Goldfrank LR et al: Goldfrank’s Toxicologic Emergencies, 8th edition, McGraw-Hill, New York, 2006, pps 1775-179
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Question 5 of 88
5. Question
A family brings its 70-year-old patriarch for an evaluation for visual hallucinations that have developed during the previous two months. A psychiatrist finds cognitive impairment, confirmed by a Mini Mental Status test score of 22/30, and that the patient has a masked face, bradykinesia, rigidity, and gait impairment, although no tremor. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
Salient features of this case are dementia and parkinsonism as well as the visual hallucinations. These three symptoms constitute the core features of dementia with Lewy body disease. Suggestive features are rapid eye movement (REM) disorder and hypersensitivity to antipsychotic agents. In contrast, dementia usually does not complicate Parkinson disease until it has been present for five or more years. Parkinsonism does not complicate Alzheimer disease. Unlike dopaminergic substances, such as cocaine, dopamine-blocking substances do not produce euphoria and are unlikely to be taken surreptitiously.
McKeith IG: Dickson DW, Lowe J, et al: Diagnosis and management of dementia with Lewy bodies: Third report of the DLB consortium. Neurology 2005; 65: 1863-1872
Incorrect
Salient features of this case are dementia and parkinsonism as well as the visual hallucinations. These three symptoms constitute the core features of dementia with Lewy body disease. Suggestive features are rapid eye movement (REM) disorder and hypersensitivity to antipsychotic agents. In contrast, dementia usually does not complicate Parkinson disease until it has been present for five or more years. Parkinsonism does not complicate Alzheimer disease. Unlike dopaminergic substances, such as cocaine, dopamine-blocking substances do not produce euphoria and are unlikely to be taken surreptitiously.
McKeith IG: Dickson DW, Lowe J, et al: Diagnosis and management of dementia with Lewy bodies: Third report of the DLB consortium. Neurology 2005; 65: 1863-1872
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Question 6 of 88
6. Question
A 45-year-old female presents with symptoms of Major Depression. You begin treatment with citalopram 20 mg. QD. After four weeks, the patient tells you that she has experienced some improvement in her sleep, and concentration, and although her mood is still depressed, it is less so. She continues to complain of anhedonia and decreased energy. What should you do?
Correct
Because SSRIs have a flat dose response curve, higher doses of SSRIs will not necessarily offer additional therapeutic benefit, although some patients may show a response to higher doses. Premature dose increases can also increase the risk of side effects. Therefore when treating depression, “we recommend maintaining the usual therapeutic dose for at least 4 weeks. If no improvement is seen after 4 weeks, a trial of a higher dose may be warranted. If a partial response is evident after 4 weeks of therapy, the dose should remain constant for an additional two weeks…”
Martinez M, Marangell L et al: Chapter 26. Psychopharmacology, (in) Hales R et al The American Psychiatric Publishing Textbook of Psychiatry, 5th ed. American Psychiatric Publishing, 2008
Incorrect
Because SSRIs have a flat dose response curve, higher doses of SSRIs will not necessarily offer additional therapeutic benefit, although some patients may show a response to higher doses. Premature dose increases can also increase the risk of side effects. Therefore when treating depression, “we recommend maintaining the usual therapeutic dose for at least 4 weeks. If no improvement is seen after 4 weeks, a trial of a higher dose may be warranted. If a partial response is evident after 4 weeks of therapy, the dose should remain constant for an additional two weeks…”
Martinez M, Marangell L et al: Chapter 26. Psychopharmacology, (in) Hales R et al The American Psychiatric Publishing Textbook of Psychiatry, 5th ed. American Psychiatric Publishing, 2008
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Question 7 of 88
7. Question
Following his usual swim at his gym, a 68-year-old man, who had always been entirely healthy, could not find his locker and, after a friend located it, could not recall the lock’s combination number. At the hospital, his vital signs, general physical examination, and physical neurologic examination were normal; however, he was distraught, befuddled, and unable to recall the name of the physician examining him, more than 2 of 6 digits, or any of 3 objects after 3 minutes. In contrast, he was fully alert and attentive, able to recite ¬, without hesitancy, his home address, his and his wife’s cell telephone numbers, and his social security number. After 4 hours, with no treatment, his disturbance entirely cleared. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
This man had a several hour period of almost entirely anterograde amnesia that developed after vigorous exercise. During that time, he retained personal, well-learned information. This is the well-known syndrome of transient global amnesia (TGA). Physically stressful activities, including sexual intercourse, and exposure to cold may precipitate an episode of TGA, but episodes rarely recur. Postulated mechanisms have included transient ischemia, cerebral venous insufficiency, and partial complex seizures. Although research has not identified a specific cause, the consensus has always been that TGA is a physiologic disorder. In contrast to TGA, the diagnostic criteria for dissociative amnesia require loss of important autobiographical information, even if only for a specific event. Dissociative identity disorder’s criteria essentially require two or more personalities as well as amnesia for autobiographical information or traumatic events. Because he was fully alert and attentive, he could not have been having a partial complex seizure.
Bartsch T, Deuschl G: Transient global amnesia: Functional anatomy and clinical implications. Lancet Neurol 2010; 9: 205-14.
Hunter G: Transient global amnesia 2011; 29: 1045-54.
Quinette P, Guillery-Girard B, Dayan J, et al: What does transient global amnesia really mean? Review of the literature and thorough study of 142 cases. Brain 2006; 129: 1640-58.
Incorrect
This man had a several hour period of almost entirely anterograde amnesia that developed after vigorous exercise. During that time, he retained personal, well-learned information. This is the well-known syndrome of transient global amnesia (TGA). Physically stressful activities, including sexual intercourse, and exposure to cold may precipitate an episode of TGA, but episodes rarely recur. Postulated mechanisms have included transient ischemia, cerebral venous insufficiency, and partial complex seizures. Although research has not identified a specific cause, the consensus has always been that TGA is a physiologic disorder. In contrast to TGA, the diagnostic criteria for dissociative amnesia require loss of important autobiographical information, even if only for a specific event. Dissociative identity disorder’s criteria essentially require two or more personalities as well as amnesia for autobiographical information or traumatic events. Because he was fully alert and attentive, he could not have been having a partial complex seizure.
Bartsch T, Deuschl G: Transient global amnesia: Functional anatomy and clinical implications. Lancet Neurol 2010; 9: 205-14.
Hunter G: Transient global amnesia 2011; 29: 1045-54.
Quinette P, Guillery-Girard B, Dayan J, et al: What does transient global amnesia really mean? Review of the literature and thorough study of 142 cases. Brain 2006; 129: 1640-58.
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Question 8 of 88
8. Question
Ms. Dolyn is admitted involuntarily to a locked inpatient unit because she is psychotic and suicidal. She refuses to take any medication. Her psychiatrist takes her to court for medication over objection. Which one of the following is essential for the psychiatrist to prove in order to win the case?
Correct
When doctors go to court for medication over objection they need to demonstrate that the patient lacks the capacity to make a refusal and that the treatment is in the patient’s best interests. Involuntary hospitalization does not negate the presumption that a patient is competent to refuse medication. If the patient represents an acute danger to self or others it constitutes an emergency and medication can be given over a patient’s objection without going to court. Even if the patient were willing to contract for safety, the contract would not resolve the issue of her refusal to take medication.
Sadock, Benjamin J, Sadock, Virginia A, Ruiz, Pedro: Kaplan and Sadock’s Comprehensive Textbook of Psychiatry, 9th ed. Lippincot Williams & Wilkins. Philadelphia, 2009. Ch. 57.1 pp. 4435.
Appelbaum PS, Gutheil TG: Clinical Handbook of Psychiatry and the Law. 4th ed. Lippincott Williams & Wilkins. 2007. pp. 81-6
Incorrect
When doctors go to court for medication over objection they need to demonstrate that the patient lacks the capacity to make a refusal and that the treatment is in the patient’s best interests. Involuntary hospitalization does not negate the presumption that a patient is competent to refuse medication. If the patient represents an acute danger to self or others it constitutes an emergency and medication can be given over a patient’s objection without going to court. Even if the patient were willing to contract for safety, the contract would not resolve the issue of her refusal to take medication.
Sadock, Benjamin J, Sadock, Virginia A, Ruiz, Pedro: Kaplan and Sadock’s Comprehensive Textbook of Psychiatry, 9th ed. Lippincot Williams & Wilkins. Philadelphia, 2009. Ch. 57.1 pp. 4435.
Appelbaum PS, Gutheil TG: Clinical Handbook of Psychiatry and the Law. 4th ed. Lippincott Williams & Wilkins. 2007. pp. 81-6
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Question 9 of 88
9. Question
Of the following choices, which one is most likely to be the cause of a psychiatric malpractice suit?
Correct
Some of the most common reasons for psychiatric malpractice suits include suicide attempt or completion by a patient (most common), incorrect or negligent treatment, medication error or drug reaction, and incorrect diagnosis. Less common causes for psychiatric malpractice suits include boundary violations, negligent supervision, improper commitment, injury to a third party (Tarasoff cases), and breach of confidentiality.
Sadock, Benjamin J, Sadock, Virginia A, Ruiz, Pedro: Kaplan and Sadock’s Comprehensive Textbook of Psychiatry, 9th ed. Lippincot Williams & Wilkins. Philadelphia, 2009. Ch. 58 pp. 1371-1382.
Appelbaum PS, Gutheil TG: Clinical Handbook of Psychiatry and the Law. 4th ed. Lippincott Williams & Wilkins. 2007. pp. 118-25.Incorrect
Some of the most common reasons for psychiatric malpractice suits include suicide attempt or completion by a patient (most common), incorrect or negligent treatment, medication error or drug reaction, and incorrect diagnosis. Less common causes for psychiatric malpractice suits include boundary violations, negligent supervision, improper commitment, injury to a third party (Tarasoff cases), and breach of confidentiality.
Sadock, Benjamin J, Sadock, Virginia A, Ruiz, Pedro: Kaplan and Sadock’s Comprehensive Textbook of Psychiatry, 9th ed. Lippincot Williams & Wilkins. Philadelphia, 2009. Ch. 58 pp. 1371-1382.
Appelbaum PS, Gutheil TG: Clinical Handbook of Psychiatry and the Law. 4th ed. Lippincott Williams & Wilkins. 2007. pp. 118-25. -
Question 10 of 88
10. Question
Mr. Newell believed that he was sent by God to cleanse the earth of sinners. He heard what he believed to be God’s voice telling him to act. He bought a hunting knife and killed two prostitutes. In order to be found guilty of murder the prosecution must prove that Mr. Newell had which one of the following:
Correct
. A socially harmful act is not enough to have committed a crime. To be found guilty, the accused must also have mens rea (evil intent) and actus reus (voluntary conduct). Because Mr. Newell is psychotic, he could be found not responsible for his crime because he was lacking both of these elements. Respondeat superior holds that a person occupying a high position in a hierarchy is responsible for those in lower positions. Nonmalfeasance is the duty of physicians to do no harm. Parens patriae is a doctrine that allows the state to intervene and act as a surrogate parent for those who are unable to care for themselves.
Sadock, Benjamin J, Sadock, Virginia A, Ruiz, Pedro: Kaplan and Sadock’s Comprehensive Textbook of Psychiatry, 9th ed. Lippincot Williams & Wilkins. Philadelphia, 2009. Ch. 58 pp. 1371-1382, Ch. 59 pp.1383-1392.
Appelbaum PS, Gutheil TG: Clinical Handbook of Psychiatry and the Law. 4th ed. Lippincott Williams & Wilkins. 2007. pp. 221-31.Incorrect
. A socially harmful act is not enough to have committed a crime. To be found guilty, the accused must also have mens rea (evil intent) and actus reus (voluntary conduct). Because Mr. Newell is psychotic, he could be found not responsible for his crime because he was lacking both of these elements. Respondeat superior holds that a person occupying a high position in a hierarchy is responsible for those in lower positions. Nonmalfeasance is the duty of physicians to do no harm. Parens patriae is a doctrine that allows the state to intervene and act as a surrogate parent for those who are unable to care for themselves.
Sadock, Benjamin J, Sadock, Virginia A, Ruiz, Pedro: Kaplan and Sadock’s Comprehensive Textbook of Psychiatry, 9th ed. Lippincot Williams & Wilkins. Philadelphia, 2009. Ch. 58 pp. 1371-1382, Ch. 59 pp.1383-1392.
Appelbaum PS, Gutheil TG: Clinical Handbook of Psychiatry and the Law. 4th ed. Lippincott Williams & Wilkins. 2007. pp. 221-31. -
Question 11 of 88
11. Question
Which one of the following paraphilias is the least likely to lead to legal involvement?
Correct
Society has deemed that sexual behavior, which is not “healthy and non-harming,” can be punished by serious legal and societal consequences. The paraphilias that most commonly lead to legal consequences include pedophilia, exhibitionism, and sexual sadism resulting in rape or murder.
Sadock, Benjamin J, Sadock, Virginia A, Ruiz, Pedro: Kaplan and Sadock’s Comprehensive Textbook of Psychiatry, 9th ed. Lippincot Williams & Wilkins. Philadelphia, 2009. Ch .18.2 pp. 2090-9.
Incorrect
Society has deemed that sexual behavior, which is not “healthy and non-harming,” can be punished by serious legal and societal consequences. The paraphilias that most commonly lead to legal consequences include pedophilia, exhibitionism, and sexual sadism resulting in rape or murder.
Sadock, Benjamin J, Sadock, Virginia A, Ruiz, Pedro: Kaplan and Sadock’s Comprehensive Textbook of Psychiatry, 9th ed. Lippincot Williams & Wilkins. Philadelphia, 2009. Ch .18.2 pp. 2090-9.
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Question 12 of 88
12. Question
Ms. Rowen is a heroin addict who also has schizophrenia. She went into Macy’s and stole merchandise expecting to sell it to buy heroin. She was caught on camera and arrested. Because in jail she was noted to be internally preoccupied, she was evaluated for fitness to stand trial. Which of the following tools would be most useful in evaluating her?
Correct
The McGarry instrument is a clinical guide that evaluates 13 areas of functioning in order to determine a patient’s competence to stand trial. The McNaughton rule states that people are not guilty by reason of insanity if they have a mental disease such that they are unaware of the nature, quality and consequences of the actions, or if they are incapable of realizing that their acts are wrong. The McGann instrument and the McInnis instrument are not real and are just distractors.
Sadock, Benjamin J, Sadock, Virginia A, Ruiz, Pedro: Kaplan and Sadock’s Comprehensive Textbook of Psychiatry, 9th ed. Lippincot Williams & Wilkins. Philadelphia, 2009. Ch. 58 pp. 1371-1382, Ch. 59 pp.1371-82.
Appelbaum PS, Gutheil TG: Clinical Handbook of Psychiatry and the Law. 4th ed. Lippincott Williams & Wilkins. 2007. pp. 221-31.Incorrect
The McGarry instrument is a clinical guide that evaluates 13 areas of functioning in order to determine a patient’s competence to stand trial. The McNaughton rule states that people are not guilty by reason of insanity if they have a mental disease such that they are unaware of the nature, quality and consequences of the actions, or if they are incapable of realizing that their acts are wrong. The McGann instrument and the McInnis instrument are not real and are just distractors.
Sadock, Benjamin J, Sadock, Virginia A, Ruiz, Pedro: Kaplan and Sadock’s Comprehensive Textbook of Psychiatry, 9th ed. Lippincot Williams & Wilkins. Philadelphia, 2009. Ch. 58 pp. 1371-1382, Ch. 59 pp.1371-82.
Appelbaum PS, Gutheil TG: Clinical Handbook of Psychiatry and the Law. 4th ed. Lippincott Williams & Wilkins. 2007. pp. 221-31. -
Question 13 of 88
13. Question
A 27 y.o. woman was diagnosed with schizophrenia 6 months ago. She is currently treated with iloperidone 8mg, BID. She now reports new onset of symptoms of depression for which the psychiatrist will add paroxetine 20 QD. What adjustment to the dosage of iloperidone should be made?
Correct
Iloperidone (Fanapt) is metabolized by CYP 2D6 and CYP 3A4 P450 enzymes. It is necessary to reduce the dosage of iloperidone by 50% if it is given concomitantly with a strong inhibitor of either enzyme. Paroxetine is a strong inhibitor of 2D6. When the inhibitor is discontinued, the dosage should be returned to its previous level. Side effects of iloperidone include sedation, orthostatic hypotension , dizziness and tachycardia. Iloperidone can also cause QTC prolongation and EPS. The usual starting dose is 1 mg. BID with a gradual titration to a 6-12 mg. BID.
Incorrect
Iloperidone (Fanapt) is metabolized by CYP 2D6 and CYP 3A4 P450 enzymes. It is necessary to reduce the dosage of iloperidone by 50% if it is given concomitantly with a strong inhibitor of either enzyme. Paroxetine is a strong inhibitor of 2D6. When the inhibitor is discontinued, the dosage should be returned to its previous level. Side effects of iloperidone include sedation, orthostatic hypotension , dizziness and tachycardia. Iloperidone can also cause QTC prolongation and EPS. The usual starting dose is 1 mg. BID with a gradual titration to a 6-12 mg. BID.
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Question 14 of 88
14. Question
Mr. Melly suffers from posttraumatic stress disorder [PTSD]. You order a standard magnetic resonance imaging [MRI] of his brain. Which one of the following is it most likely to show?
Correct
MRI studies in patients with PTSD show decreased hippocampal volume. The answer choice involving the putamen and caudate is a distractor. Increased size of the lateral ventricles is seen in schizophrenia. Decreased metabolic activity in the prefrontal cortex is seen in schizophrenia, not PTSD. In addition metabolic activity is evaluated using fMRI or PET, not a standard MRI.
Gilbertson MW, Shenton ME, Ciszewski A, et al: Smaller hippocampal volume predicts pathologic vulnerability to psychological trauma. Nat Neurosci 2002; 5: 1242-47.
Incorrect
MRI studies in patients with PTSD show decreased hippocampal volume. The answer choice involving the putamen and caudate is a distractor. Increased size of the lateral ventricles is seen in schizophrenia. Decreased metabolic activity in the prefrontal cortex is seen in schizophrenia, not PTSD. In addition metabolic activity is evaluated using fMRI or PET, not a standard MRI.
Gilbertson MW, Shenton ME, Ciszewski A, et al: Smaller hippocampal volume predicts pathologic vulnerability to psychological trauma. Nat Neurosci 2002; 5: 1242-47.
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Question 15 of 88
15. Question
Of the people listed below, who is most associated with the theory of Operant Conditioning?
Correct
. B.F. Skinner is associated with operant conditioning. In operant conditioning voluntary behavior is modified using positive and negative reinforcement to shape the desired behavior. Ivan Pavlov is associated with classical conditioning. In classical conditioning a neutral (conditioned) stimulus is paired with a stimulus that evokes a response (unconditioned) such that the neutral stimulus eventually comes to evoke the same response. Martin Seligman is associated with learned helplessness, which is a model of depression in which an individual repetitively fails at tasks and eventually stops trying, adopting a hopeless apathetic position. Salvador Minuchin is associated with structural family therapy. Structural family therapy focuses on the organization of the family and how that organization promotes or impedes the family from functioning successfully.
Sadock, Benjamin J, Sadock, Virginia A, Ruiz, Pedro: Kaplan and Sadock’s Comprehensive Textbook of Psychiatry, 9th ed. Lippincot Williams & Wilkins. Philadelphia, 2009. Ch. 30.3 pp. 2781.
Incorrect
. B.F. Skinner is associated with operant conditioning. In operant conditioning voluntary behavior is modified using positive and negative reinforcement to shape the desired behavior. Ivan Pavlov is associated with classical conditioning. In classical conditioning a neutral (conditioned) stimulus is paired with a stimulus that evokes a response (unconditioned) such that the neutral stimulus eventually comes to evoke the same response. Martin Seligman is associated with learned helplessness, which is a model of depression in which an individual repetitively fails at tasks and eventually stops trying, adopting a hopeless apathetic position. Salvador Minuchin is associated with structural family therapy. Structural family therapy focuses on the organization of the family and how that organization promotes or impedes the family from functioning successfully.
Sadock, Benjamin J, Sadock, Virginia A, Ruiz, Pedro: Kaplan and Sadock’s Comprehensive Textbook of Psychiatry, 9th ed. Lippincot Williams & Wilkins. Philadelphia, 2009. Ch. 30.3 pp. 2781.
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Question 16 of 88
16. Question
Mr. Nathan has been having panic attacks for the past several months. They have increased in frequency to the point where he is now having panic attacks 2-3 times per day. He finally brought himself to a psychiatrist for help who prescribed medication and cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT). Which one of the following is least likely to be part of the prescribed therapy?
Correct
CBT has been well studied and shown to be very effective for panic disorder. It often includes psychoeducation, continuous panic monitoring, breathing retraining, cognitive restructuring, and exposure to fear cues. Developing discrepancy between the patient’s goals and current behavior is an important element of Motivational Interviewing, which is used in substance abuse treatment; however, it is not considered a central element of CBT.
Kristin M: A meta-analysis of the efficacy of psycho- and pharmacotherapy in panic disorder with and without agoraphobia. J Affect Dis 2005; 88: 27-45.
Incorrect
CBT has been well studied and shown to be very effective for panic disorder. It often includes psychoeducation, continuous panic monitoring, breathing retraining, cognitive restructuring, and exposure to fear cues. Developing discrepancy between the patient’s goals and current behavior is an important element of Motivational Interviewing, which is used in substance abuse treatment; however, it is not considered a central element of CBT.
Kristin M: A meta-analysis of the efficacy of psycho- and pharmacotherapy in panic disorder with and without agoraphobia. J Affect Dis 2005; 88: 27-45.
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Question 17 of 88
17. Question
A 10 y.o. boy has a history of motor tics and ADHD. He has been treated with methylphenidate. Over the past few weeks, the tics have worsened and he has developed a snorting sound that is likely a new vocal tic. The patient’s pediatrician discontinued the methylphenidate, but the tics persisted and his impulsivity and hyperactivity worsened. A child psychiatry consultation was obtained and the diagnosis of Tourette syndrome was made. What would be the most appropriate next medication trial for this patient?
Correct
In the treatment guidelines for children with ADHD and moderate tic disorders, guanfacine and clonidine are considered first line treatments. These medications are effective both for tic control and decrease in impulsivity and hyperactivity while having a favorable safety margin compared with the antipsychotic medications.
Scahill L, Chappell PB, Kim YS, et al: Guanfacine in the treatment of children with tic disorders and ADHD: a placebo-controlled study, Amer J Psych 2001; 158; 1067-1074.
Biederman J, Melmed RD, Patel A, et al. A randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled study of guanfacine extended release in children and adolescents with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. Pediatrics 2008; 121: e73-e84.
Incorrect
In the treatment guidelines for children with ADHD and moderate tic disorders, guanfacine and clonidine are considered first line treatments. These medications are effective both for tic control and decrease in impulsivity and hyperactivity while having a favorable safety margin compared with the antipsychotic medications.
Scahill L, Chappell PB, Kim YS, et al: Guanfacine in the treatment of children with tic disorders and ADHD: a placebo-controlled study, Amer J Psych 2001; 158; 1067-1074.
Biederman J, Melmed RD, Patel A, et al. A randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled study of guanfacine extended release in children and adolescents with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. Pediatrics 2008; 121: e73-e84.
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Question 18 of 88
18. Question
Parents of a 3-year-old boy report that their child has not begun to talk. Since birth the child has been difficult to sooth and has difficulty with transitions. He has been a difficult sleeper and over the past year has had frequent violent temper tantrums. What is the first intervention the physician should recommend?
Correct
The most important first intervention in a child who presents with language delay is a full hearing evaluation.
Practice Parameter for the Assessment and Treatment of Children and Adolescents with Language and Learning Disorders, J Amer Acad Child Adol Psychiatry 1998 suppl; 37: 10.Incorrect
The most important first intervention in a child who presents with language delay is a full hearing evaluation.
Practice Parameter for the Assessment and Treatment of Children and Adolescents with Language and Learning Disorders, J Amer Acad Child Adol Psychiatry 1998 suppl; 37: 10. -
Question 19 of 88
19. Question
Which of the following disorders, frequently diagnosed in childhood and adolescence, requires symptoms to be present in two or more settings?
Correct
Problems with attention and behavior typically occur in several settings, and may vary depending on the level of structure and supervision provided, the interest in and/or novelty of an activity or setting, as well as the level of concentration and effort required. Therefore, in order to make the diagnosis of ADHD, the patient must exhibit symptoms in at least two settings.
Practice Parameter for the Assessment and Treatment of Children and Adolescents with Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder, J Amer Acad Child Adol Psychiatry 2007; 46: 894-921.
Incorrect
Problems with attention and behavior typically occur in several settings, and may vary depending on the level of structure and supervision provided, the interest in and/or novelty of an activity or setting, as well as the level of concentration and effort required. Therefore, in order to make the diagnosis of ADHD, the patient must exhibit symptoms in at least two settings.
Practice Parameter for the Assessment and Treatment of Children and Adolescents with Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder, J Amer Acad Child Adol Psychiatry 2007; 46: 894-921.
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Question 20 of 88
20. Question
An adolescent presents with developmental delays, cleft palate, heart abnormalities and symptoms of an evolving schizophreniform disorder. Which of the following genetic disorders is this child likely to have?
Correct
Velocardiofacial Syndrome (VCFS, Shprintzen syndrome, DiGeorge syndrome) is caused by microdeletion in the long arm of chromosome 22 at band 22q11.2. The phenotypic spectrum of VCFS is extremely wide and includes congenital cardiac anomalies, abnormal facies, palatal abnormalities, hypocalcemia and T-cell immunodeficiencies, cognitive deficits and psychiatric manifestations including schizophrenia.
Gothelf D. Velocardiofacial Syndrome. Child Adol Clin North Amer 2007; 16: 677-93.
Incorrect
Velocardiofacial Syndrome (VCFS, Shprintzen syndrome, DiGeorge syndrome) is caused by microdeletion in the long arm of chromosome 22 at band 22q11.2. The phenotypic spectrum of VCFS is extremely wide and includes congenital cardiac anomalies, abnormal facies, palatal abnormalities, hypocalcemia and T-cell immunodeficiencies, cognitive deficits and psychiatric manifestations including schizophrenia.
Gothelf D. Velocardiofacial Syndrome. Child Adol Clin North Amer 2007; 16: 677-93.
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Question 21 of 88
21. Question
Which food is safe to ingest by patients treated with nonreversible monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)?
Correct
When patients treated with nonreversible MAOIs ingest tyramine containing foods, they are at risk to develop a hypertensive crisis. Foods with high tyramine content should be avoided and include aged cheeses, aged or fermented meats, fava beans and other broad beans, sauerkraut, overripe or spoiled foods,, soy sauce, and yeast extracts (marmite). Both alcoholic and non-alcoholic tap beer, and chianti wine should also be avoided . Foods that are safe to ingest include fresh cheeses, fresh yogurt, other alcoholic beverages and smoked fish. Chocolate and caffeine can be a problem if ingested in large amounts, but are acceptable if used in moderation.
Hales RF, Yudofsky SC, Gabbard GO (eds.):The American Psychiatric PublishingTextbook of Psychiatry: 5th ed. American Psychiatric Publishing, Inc. 2008
Labbate LA, Fava M, et al: Handbook of Psychiatric Drug Therapy, 6th ed. Lippincott Williams & Williams, 2010.Incorrect
When patients treated with nonreversible MAOIs ingest tyramine containing foods, they are at risk to develop a hypertensive crisis. Foods with high tyramine content should be avoided and include aged cheeses, aged or fermented meats, fava beans and other broad beans, sauerkraut, overripe or spoiled foods,, soy sauce, and yeast extracts (marmite). Both alcoholic and non-alcoholic tap beer, and chianti wine should also be avoided . Foods that are safe to ingest include fresh cheeses, fresh yogurt, other alcoholic beverages and smoked fish. Chocolate and caffeine can be a problem if ingested in large amounts, but are acceptable if used in moderation.
Hales RF, Yudofsky SC, Gabbard GO (eds.):The American Psychiatric PublishingTextbook of Psychiatry: 5th ed. American Psychiatric Publishing, Inc. 2008
Labbate LA, Fava M, et al: Handbook of Psychiatric Drug Therapy, 6th ed. Lippincott Williams & Williams, 2010. -
Question 22 of 88
22. Question
Which is not a feature of schizoid personality disorder?
Correct
Schizoid personality disorder is characterized by social detachment, isolation and constricted affect. Affected individuals lack close friends, do not take pleasure in activities, and appear cold, aloof and indifferent to others. Suspiciousness and mistrust is a core feature of paranoid personality disorder.
Hales RF, Yudofsky SC, Gabbard GO (eds.) The American Psychiatric PublishingTextbook of Psychiatry: 5th ed. American Psychiatric Publishing, Inc, 2008
Saddock BJ, Kaplan VA: Kaplan and Saddock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry: Behavioral Sciences/Clinical Psychiatry 10th ed. Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2007Incorrect
Schizoid personality disorder is characterized by social detachment, isolation and constricted affect. Affected individuals lack close friends, do not take pleasure in activities, and appear cold, aloof and indifferent to others. Suspiciousness and mistrust is a core feature of paranoid personality disorder.
Hales RF, Yudofsky SC, Gabbard GO (eds.) The American Psychiatric PublishingTextbook of Psychiatry: 5th ed. American Psychiatric Publishing, Inc, 2008
Saddock BJ, Kaplan VA: Kaplan and Saddock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry: Behavioral Sciences/Clinical Psychiatry 10th ed. Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2007 -
Question 23 of 88
23. Question
A 27 y.o. female with borderline personality disorder presents with rejection sensitivity, and outbursts of anger that are intense and difficult for her to control. She also describes frequent “mood crashes” in which she rapidly becomes depressed. According to the APA Practice Guidelines, which would be the first line medication trial?
Correct
According to the APA practice guidelines for treating Borderline Personality Disorder, the initial medication treatment for patients who have symptoms of affective dysregulation (mood lability, inappropriate intense anger, depressive mood crashes, or outbursts of temper), is an SSRI or similar antidepressant. In the recommended treatment algorithm, the next step would be to try a different SSRI or other related antidepressant. If this continues to be ineffective or only partially effective, then a low dose of neuroleptic should be added for symptoms of anger, and or clonazepam for anxiety. If the patient is still symptomatic, then a trial of an MAOI should be utilized. The last step in the algorithm, if the patient remains symptomatic, is a trial of a mood stabilizer.
APA Practice Guidelines for the Treatment of Borderline Personality Disorder. (originally published in 2001)Incorrect
According to the APA practice guidelines for treating Borderline Personality Disorder, the initial medication treatment for patients who have symptoms of affective dysregulation (mood lability, inappropriate intense anger, depressive mood crashes, or outbursts of temper), is an SSRI or similar antidepressant. In the recommended treatment algorithm, the next step would be to try a different SSRI or other related antidepressant. If this continues to be ineffective or only partially effective, then a low dose of neuroleptic should be added for symptoms of anger, and or clonazepam for anxiety. If the patient is still symptomatic, then a trial of an MAOI should be utilized. The last step in the algorithm, if the patient remains symptomatic, is a trial of a mood stabilizer.
APA Practice Guidelines for the Treatment of Borderline Personality Disorder. (originally published in 2001) -
Question 24 of 88
24. Question
You have been treating a patient diagnosed with atypical depression with fluoxetine for three months without success. You wish to start a trial of amonoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI), such as phenelzine, instead. You will discontinue the fluoxetine today. How long must you wait until you start the MAOI?
Correct
Due to its long half-life, when switching from fluoxetine to an MAOI, a 5-week washout period is advised, in order to reduce the risk of developing serotonin syndrome. When transitioning from an MAOI to fluoxetine, the recommended washout period is two weeks. When switching between an MAOI and other SSRIs, the washout period is two weeks.
Schatzberg AF, Cole JO, DeBattista, C. Manual of Clinical Psychopharmacology 5th ed. American Psychiatric Publishing, 2005, pp. 122-3.Incorrect
Due to its long half-life, when switching from fluoxetine to an MAOI, a 5-week washout period is advised, in order to reduce the risk of developing serotonin syndrome. When transitioning from an MAOI to fluoxetine, the recommended washout period is two weeks. When switching between an MAOI and other SSRIs, the washout period is two weeks.
Schatzberg AF, Cole JO, DeBattista, C. Manual of Clinical Psychopharmacology 5th ed. American Psychiatric Publishing, 2005, pp. 122-3. -
Question 25 of 88
25. Question
Which is the most common method used to complete suicide in the United States?
Correct
According to data published in 2004 by the American Association of Suicidology, firearms account for 51.6% of completed suicides. Suffocation or hanging accounts for 22.6% and poisoning resulted in 17.9 % of suicides. However worldwide, hanging is cited as the most common method of suicide.
Hales RF, Yudofsky SC, Gabbard GO (eds.) The American Psychiatric PublishingTextbook of Psychiatry: 5th ed. American Psychiatric Publishing, 2008
Saddock BJ, Kaplan VA: Kaplan and Saddock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry: Behavioral Sciences/Clinical Psychiatry 10th ed. Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2007Incorrect
According to data published in 2004 by the American Association of Suicidology, firearms account for 51.6% of completed suicides. Suffocation or hanging accounts for 22.6% and poisoning resulted in 17.9 % of suicides. However worldwide, hanging is cited as the most common method of suicide.
Hales RF, Yudofsky SC, Gabbard GO (eds.) The American Psychiatric PublishingTextbook of Psychiatry: 5th ed. American Psychiatric Publishing, 2008
Saddock BJ, Kaplan VA: Kaplan and Saddock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry: Behavioral Sciences/Clinical Psychiatry 10th ed. Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2007 -
Question 26 of 88
26. Question
A 32 y.o. female has been treated for bipolar disorder with lithium carbonate 600 mg. BID. She was recently admitted with symptoms of depression and psychosis. Haloperidol 2mg. BID, and citalopram 20mg. QD were added to her regimen. The following morning, she began complaining of nausea and abdominal discomfort. She had a temperature of 101, and was shivering and diaphoretic. She was noted to be mildly agitated and confused. An examination revealed hyperactive bowel sounds, hyperreflexia and bilateral myoclonus of her lower extremities. Her lithium level was 0.7. Other laboratory findings were unremarkable. What is the most likely cause of her presentation?
Correct
Serotonin syndrome can present with a wide array of symptoms that vary in severity. The neuromuscular findings of hyperreflexia, myoclonus, and tremor are highly suggestive of the disorder, in a patient who has recently received serotonergic agents, or has had a dosage adjustment. Other symptoms include diarrhea, tachycardia, elevated temperature, diaphoresis, shivering, elevated BP, and muscular rigidity (which can mask the other neuromuscular symptoms). Mental status changes ranging from agitation and confusion to frank delirium can also occur. Lithium toxicity would be unlikely to occur at a level of 0.7. In neuroleptic malignant syndrome, symptoms of severe muscle rigidity (“lead pipe rigidity”), mutism, and decreased bowel sounds would be seen. Anticholinergic toxicity is characterized by hyperthermia, tachycardia, dry mouth, decreased or absent bowel sounds, agitation and delirium, normal neuromuscular tone and normal reflexes.
Boyer EW; Shannon M: The serotonin syndrome, N Engl J Med 2005; 352: 1112-20.Incorrect
Serotonin syndrome can present with a wide array of symptoms that vary in severity. The neuromuscular findings of hyperreflexia, myoclonus, and tremor are highly suggestive of the disorder, in a patient who has recently received serotonergic agents, or has had a dosage adjustment. Other symptoms include diarrhea, tachycardia, elevated temperature, diaphoresis, shivering, elevated BP, and muscular rigidity (which can mask the other neuromuscular symptoms). Mental status changes ranging from agitation and confusion to frank delirium can also occur. Lithium toxicity would be unlikely to occur at a level of 0.7. In neuroleptic malignant syndrome, symptoms of severe muscle rigidity (“lead pipe rigidity”), mutism, and decreased bowel sounds would be seen. Anticholinergic toxicity is characterized by hyperthermia, tachycardia, dry mouth, decreased or absent bowel sounds, agitation and delirium, normal neuromuscular tone and normal reflexes.
Boyer EW; Shannon M: The serotonin syndrome, N Engl J Med 2005; 352: 1112-20. -
Question 27 of 88
27. Question
Which of the following would not be helpful in the pharmacologic management of serotonin syndrome?
Correct
Pharmacological management strategies for serotonin syndrome include the use of benzodiazepines for control of agitation, and 5-HT2A antagonists such as cyproheptadine. In severe cases, if the excessive muscular activity is not suppressed by a benzodiazepine, the use of a non-depolarizing agent, such as vecuronium (with appropriate supportive measures), may be necessary to control hyperthermia. Since the hyperthermia is a direct result of muscular hyperactivity, antipyretics such as acetaminophen have no effect.
Boyer EW; Shannon M: The serotonin syndrome, N Engl J Med 2005; 352: 1112-20.Incorrect
Pharmacological management strategies for serotonin syndrome include the use of benzodiazepines for control of agitation, and 5-HT2A antagonists such as cyproheptadine. In severe cases, if the excessive muscular activity is not suppressed by a benzodiazepine, the use of a non-depolarizing agent, such as vecuronium (with appropriate supportive measures), may be necessary to control hyperthermia. Since the hyperthermia is a direct result of muscular hyperactivity, antipyretics such as acetaminophen have no effect.
Boyer EW; Shannon M: The serotonin syndrome, N Engl J Med 2005; 352: 1112-20. -
Question 28 of 88
28. Question
Which of the following medications is most likely to increase the levels of lamotrigine, if coadministered?
Correct
Valproic acid can double serum levels of lamotrigine. This is of particular concern because of the increased risk of rash that occurs in patients taking lamotrigine. While most often the rash is benign, it can herald the beginning of Steven’s Johnson syndrome, a potentially fatal reaction. Lamotrigine should be discontinued in any patient who develops a rash. The risk of developing a rash is increased by rate of titration and starting dosage. Therefore, lower dosage and slower titration of lamotrigine is recommended if valproic acid is used together with lamotrigine. . Paroxetine, a 2D6 inhibitor does not affect lamotrigine levels, nor does iloperidone.
Labbate LA, Fava M, et al: Handbook of Psychiatric Drug Therapy, 6th ed. Lippincott Williams & Williams, 2010.
Incorrect
Valproic acid can double serum levels of lamotrigine. This is of particular concern because of the increased risk of rash that occurs in patients taking lamotrigine. While most often the rash is benign, it can herald the beginning of Steven’s Johnson syndrome, a potentially fatal reaction. Lamotrigine should be discontinued in any patient who develops a rash. The risk of developing a rash is increased by rate of titration and starting dosage. Therefore, lower dosage and slower titration of lamotrigine is recommended if valproic acid is used together with lamotrigine. . Paroxetine, a 2D6 inhibitor does not affect lamotrigine levels, nor does iloperidone.
Labbate LA, Fava M, et al: Handbook of Psychiatric Drug Therapy, 6th ed. Lippincott Williams & Williams, 2010.
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Question 29 of 88
29. Question
For how long must a patient be observed at the treating facility after receiving an intramuscular injection of long-acting olanzapine?
Correct
The long acting injectable formulation of olanzapine has a black box warning because it is associated with the development of post-sedation delirium syndrome (PDSS). Symptoms can range from sedation, which may be severe, to delirium or coma. This formulation of olanzapine can only be administered in a registered health care facility, and patients must be observed for at least 3 hours before they can be sent home.
Saddock B, Saddock V, Sussman N: Pocket Handbook of Psychiatric Drug Treatment 5th ed. 2011. Lippincott Williams &Wilkins, p225.Incorrect
The long acting injectable formulation of olanzapine has a black box warning because it is associated with the development of post-sedation delirium syndrome (PDSS). Symptoms can range from sedation, which may be severe, to delirium or coma. This formulation of olanzapine can only be administered in a registered health care facility, and patients must be observed for at least 3 hours before they can be sent home.
Saddock B, Saddock V, Sussman N: Pocket Handbook of Psychiatric Drug Treatment 5th ed. 2011. Lippincott Williams &Wilkins, p225. -
Question 30 of 88
30. Question
A 25 y.o. male with schizophrenia has been treated with clozapine 150 mg BID for two months. On his most recent blood test, his WBC was 3200 and his ANC (absolute neutrophil count) was 2000. What should you do?
Correct
The Teva Clozapine Patient Registry has established guidelines for monitoring patients on clozapine to reduce the risk of agranulocytosis. Physicians must monitor both WBC and ANC. WBC should remain 3500 and the ANC 2000. Monitoring is done weekly for the first 6 months, and then every two weeks for the next 6 months. If the blood counts remain acceptable after 12 months of treatment, monitoring can be decreased to monthly. If the WBC falls between 3000 and 3500,(and/or the ANC falls between 2000 and 1500), clozapine can be continued, but monitoring should be increased to twice weekly until the WBC returns to 3500, then previous monitoring frequency can be resumed. If WBC or ANC fall below 3000, and 1500 respectively, then clozapine should be temporarily discontinued and monitoring substantially increased in frequency (consult registry for details.) Clozapine should be permanently discontinued in any patient in which WBC falls below 2000 or ANC falls below 1000, and continued monitoring is required until blood counts return to normal. Decreasing the dose of clozapine will not be helpful, as agranulocytosis is not dose dependent. Agranulocytosis occurs in about 1% of patients on clozapine. It occurs early in treatment with the highest risk period between 4 and 18 weeks after starting treatment.
For monitoring guidelines go to http://www.clozapineregistry.com/Table1.pdf.ashx
Labbate LA, Fava M, et al: Handbook of Psychiatric Drug Therapy, 6th ed. Lippincott Williams & Williams, 2010Incorrect
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Question 31 of 88
31. Question
A 50 y.o. female diagnosed with schizophrenia and treated with haloperidol 5mg. BID for several years develops symptoms of tardive dyskinesia. Which management strategy is most likely to worsen her symptoms of tardive dyskinesia?
Correct
Anticholinergic agents do not improve and in some cases may exacerbate symptoms of tardive dyskinesia, and should be discontinued or avoided. Switching to clozapine or a second generation antipsychotic agent may be helpful in decreasing symptoms of tardive dyskinesia. Lowering the dose of a medication may also be effective, but initially the symptoms may appear to worsen, as a result of withdrawal emergent dyskinesias. Benzodiazepines may offer some partial or temporary relief.
Brasic, JR: Tardive Dyskinesia. Medscape, Updated 2/9/12
emedicine.medscape.com/article/1151826-overviewWoo TW et al: Treatment of Schizophrenia, Chapter 55, (in) Schatzberg AF et al: The American Psychiatric Publishing Textbook of Psychopharmacology, 4th ed, 2009.
Kaufman D, Milstein M: Kaufman’s Clinical Neurology for Psychiatrists, 7th ed, Elsevier, 2013.Incorrect
Anticholinergic agents do not improve and in some cases may exacerbate symptoms of tardive dyskinesia, and should be discontinued or avoided. Switching to clozapine or a second generation antipsychotic agent may be helpful in decreasing symptoms of tardive dyskinesia. Lowering the dose of a medication may also be effective, but initially the symptoms may appear to worsen, as a result of withdrawal emergent dyskinesias. Benzodiazepines may offer some partial or temporary relief.
Brasic, JR: Tardive Dyskinesia. Medscape, Updated 2/9/12
emedicine.medscape.com/article/1151826-overviewWoo TW et al: Treatment of Schizophrenia, Chapter 55, (in) Schatzberg AF et al: The American Psychiatric Publishing Textbook of Psychopharmacology, 4th ed, 2009.
Kaufman D, Milstein M: Kaufman’s Clinical Neurology for Psychiatrists, 7th ed, Elsevier, 2013. -
Question 32 of 88
32. Question
Which personality disorder most commonly occurs in the relatives of people diagnosed with schizophrenia?
Correct
There is an increased risk of schizotypal personality disorder in the relatives of people diagnosed with schizophrenia, providing some of the support for the concept that schizoptypal personality disorder and schizophrenia are spectrum disorders. In addition, an increased risk for developing schizophrenia occurs in the relatives of people with schizotypal personality disorder. Paranoid personality disorder can also be found in relatives of people with schizophrenia, but it is not as common as schizotypal personality disorder.
Hales RF, Yudofsky SC, Gabbard GO (eds.) The American Psychiatric PublishingTextbook of Psychiatry: 5th ed. American Psychiatric Publishing, 2008
Incorrect
There is an increased risk of schizotypal personality disorder in the relatives of people diagnosed with schizophrenia, providing some of the support for the concept that schizoptypal personality disorder and schizophrenia are spectrum disorders. In addition, an increased risk for developing schizophrenia occurs in the relatives of people with schizotypal personality disorder. Paranoid personality disorder can also be found in relatives of people with schizophrenia, but it is not as common as schizotypal personality disorder.
Hales RF, Yudofsky SC, Gabbard GO (eds.) The American Psychiatric PublishingTextbook of Psychiatry: 5th ed. American Psychiatric Publishing, 2008
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Question 33 of 88
33. Question
Which medication auto-induces its own metabolism?
Correct
Carbamazepine is both a substrate and an inducer at CYP 450 3A4, and can induce its own metabolism, leading to decreased plasma levels, even though dosing remains constant.
Schatzberg AF, Cole JO, DeBattista, C. Manual of Clinical Psychopharmacology 5th ed. American Psychiatric Publishing, 2005, pp277-9.Incorrect
Carbamazepine is both a substrate and an inducer at CYP 450 3A4, and can induce its own metabolism, leading to decreased plasma levels, even though dosing remains constant.
Schatzberg AF, Cole JO, DeBattista, C. Manual of Clinical Psychopharmacology 5th ed. American Psychiatric Publishing, 2005, pp277-9. -
Question 34 of 88
34. Question
A patient recently diagnosed with schizophrenia is treated on the inpatient unit with risperidone 4mg per day. His auditory hallucinations resolve and he is discharged without side effects. Several weeks later, his outpatient psychiatrist adds an antidepressant to treat symptoms of depression. Three days later the patient complains of stiffness in his arms and legs. Which medication was most likely prescribed?
Correct
Fluoxetine is a strong CYP 450 2D6 inhibitor and risperidone is a substrate at 2D6. The
metabolism of risperidone has been inhibited by the addition of fluoxetine, and the patient likely
now has elevated plasma levels of risperidone, despite taking the same oral dose. Thus he has
developed EPS.
Labbate LA, Fava M, et al: Handbook of Psychiatric Drug Therapy, 6th ed. Lippincott Williams &
Wilkins. 2010
Incorrect
Fluoxetine is a strong CYP 450 2D6 inhibitor and risperidone is a substrate at 2D6. The
metabolism of risperidone has been inhibited by the addition of fluoxetine, and the patient likely
now has elevated plasma levels of risperidone, despite taking the same oral dose. Thus he has
developed EPS.
Labbate LA, Fava M, et al: Handbook of Psychiatric Drug Therapy, 6th ed. Lippincott Williams &
Wilkins. 2010
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Question 35 of 88
35. Question
Which side effect is most commonly encountered by patients treated with trazodone?
Correct
Sedation is the most common side effect of trazodone. Orthostatic hypotension and dizziness also frequently occur. Priapism and cardiac arrhythmias are uncommon events associated with trazodone use.
Hales RF, Yudofsky SC, Gabbard GO (eds.) The American Psychiatric PublishingTextbook of Psychiatry: 5th ed. American Psychiatric Publishing, 2008
Incorrect
Sedation is the most common side effect of trazodone. Orthostatic hypotension and dizziness also frequently occur. Priapism and cardiac arrhythmias are uncommon events associated with trazodone use.
Hales RF, Yudofsky SC, Gabbard GO (eds.) The American Psychiatric PublishingTextbook of Psychiatry: 5th ed. American Psychiatric Publishing, 2008
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Question 36 of 88
36. Question
Which would not be seen in an individual presenting with a hypomanic episode?
Correct
Psychotic symptoms are seen in patients experiencing a manic episode but not in hypomania. All of the other symptoms are consistent with both mania and hypomania. Another distinction between hypomania and mania is that social and occupational functioning is not significantly impaired in the former.
APA Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders 5th ed. American Psychiatric Publishing, 2013.
Incorrect
Psychotic symptoms are seen in patients experiencing a manic episode but not in hypomania. All of the other symptoms are consistent with both mania and hypomania. Another distinction between hypomania and mania is that social and occupational functioning is not significantly impaired in the former.
APA Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders 5th ed. American Psychiatric Publishing, 2013.
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Question 37 of 88
37. Question
What is considered to be the most common acquired cause of mild-moderate intellectual disability?
Correct
Fetal Alcohol Syndrome, caused by maternal excessive alcohol consumption, is considered to be the most common acquired, therefore potentially preventable, cause of intellectual disability. Fetal Alcohol Syndrome is caused by excessive alcohol consumption late in pregnancy (3>2>1 trimester). Down’s syndrome is the most common genetic cause of intellectual disability but is not heritable, as it is not present in either parent. Fragile X is probably the most common heritable rather than acquired cause of intellectual disability. The mutation is often present in parents, but in small enough size that symptoms occur but in milder forms. When the mutation, and number of trinucleotide repeats, increase, children are at risk for the full-blown illness. Autism (DSMIVTR) is associated in 65-70% of cases with intellectual disability but is not a cause of intellectual disability.
Sadock BJ, Sadock VA, Ruiz P: Kaplan & Sadock’s Comprehensive Textbook of Psychiatry, 9th ed. 2009, Vol I. Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, p83.
Roussotte FF et al.: Regional brain volume reductions relate to facial dysmorphology and neurocognitive function in fetal alcohol spectrum disorders. Human Brain Mapping 2012; 33(4): 920-37.Incorrect
Fetal Alcohol Syndrome, caused by maternal excessive alcohol consumption, is considered to be the most common acquired, therefore potentially preventable, cause of intellectual disability. Fetal Alcohol Syndrome is caused by excessive alcohol consumption late in pregnancy (3>2>1 trimester). Down’s syndrome is the most common genetic cause of intellectual disability but is not heritable, as it is not present in either parent. Fragile X is probably the most common heritable rather than acquired cause of intellectual disability. The mutation is often present in parents, but in small enough size that symptoms occur but in milder forms. When the mutation, and number of trinucleotide repeats, increase, children are at risk for the full-blown illness. Autism (DSMIVTR) is associated in 65-70% of cases with intellectual disability but is not a cause of intellectual disability.
Sadock BJ, Sadock VA, Ruiz P: Kaplan & Sadock’s Comprehensive Textbook of Psychiatry, 9th ed. 2009, Vol I. Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, p83.
Roussotte FF et al.: Regional brain volume reductions relate to facial dysmorphology and neurocognitive function in fetal alcohol spectrum disorders. Human Brain Mapping 2012; 33(4): 920-37. -
Question 38 of 88
38. Question
Which of the following is true about velo-cardio-facial syndrome (VCFS)?
Correct
VCFS is best known for its association with psychiatric disorders, and is particularly well-known for representing a genetic risk for schizophrenia. Early loss of temporal grey matter seems to predict the early signs of significant psychiatric problems. Except for having two parents with schizophrenia or being the monozygotic twin of someone with schizophrenia, VCFS is the highest risk factor for developing the disorder. VCFS is also associated with autism, ADHD, mood disorders and phobias. In the very young, management is related to treatment of heart, immune, palatal difficulties along with developmental delays. In the school years, cognitive difficulties are prominent. In young adulthood, psychiatric difficulties may develop. Answer a refers to tuberous sclerosis, which presents with nodules seen on the malar surface of the face, progressive intellectual disability and is associated with autism, epilepsy and cerebral tumors. VCFS is not a sex-linked condition; it is caused by a micro-deletion at 22.11.2. The microdeletion syndromes at 15Q are Prader-Willi (paternal deletion) and Angelman (maternal). In general, abnormal sex chromosomes produce physical findings and not necessarily intellectual dysfunction, whereas abnormal autosomal chromosomes are usually associated with intellectual disability.
Kates et al.: Neuroanatomic predictors to prodromal psychosis in velo-cardio-facial syndrome (22q11.2 deletion syndrome): a longitudinal study. Biol Psychiatry 2011; 69: 945-52.
Murphy, KC: Schizophrenia and velo-cardio-facial syndrome. The Lancet 2002; 359: 426-30.
Sadock BJ, Kaplan HI, Sadock VA: Kaplan & Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry: Behavioral Sciences/Clinical Psychiatry. 2007. Lippincott Williams & Wilkins: Philadelphia, p. 1141.Incorrect
VCFS is best known for its association with psychiatric disorders, and is particularly well-known for representing a genetic risk for schizophrenia. Early loss of temporal grey matter seems to predict the early signs of significant psychiatric problems. Except for having two parents with schizophrenia or being the monozygotic twin of someone with schizophrenia, VCFS is the highest risk factor for developing the disorder. VCFS is also associated with autism, ADHD, mood disorders and phobias. In the very young, management is related to treatment of heart, immune, palatal difficulties along with developmental delays. In the school years, cognitive difficulties are prominent. In young adulthood, psychiatric difficulties may develop. Answer a refers to tuberous sclerosis, which presents with nodules seen on the malar surface of the face, progressive intellectual disability and is associated with autism, epilepsy and cerebral tumors. VCFS is not a sex-linked condition; it is caused by a micro-deletion at 22.11.2. The microdeletion syndromes at 15Q are Prader-Willi (paternal deletion) and Angelman (maternal). In general, abnormal sex chromosomes produce physical findings and not necessarily intellectual dysfunction, whereas abnormal autosomal chromosomes are usually associated with intellectual disability.
Kates et al.: Neuroanatomic predictors to prodromal psychosis in velo-cardio-facial syndrome (22q11.2 deletion syndrome): a longitudinal study. Biol Psychiatry 2011; 69: 945-52.
Murphy, KC: Schizophrenia and velo-cardio-facial syndrome. The Lancet 2002; 359: 426-30.
Sadock BJ, Kaplan HI, Sadock VA: Kaplan & Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry: Behavioral Sciences/Clinical Psychiatry. 2007. Lippincott Williams & Wilkins: Philadelphia, p. 1141. -
Question 39 of 88
39. Question
Which is true regarding paraphilias?
Correct
The vast majority of paraphilias occur in men. Close to 100% of exhibitionists are males exposing themselves to women. Fetishism, a disorder in which sexual arousal involves the use of inanimate objects that are typically associated with the body e.g. shoes, gloves, undergarments, etc.,also almost always occurs in men. 95% of pedophiles are heterosexual. Most pedophiles also have engaged in voyeurism, exhibitionism and rape.
Saddock BJ, Kaplan VA: Kaplan and Saddock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry: Behavioral Sciences/Clinical Psychiatry 10th ed. Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2007.
Incorrect
The vast majority of paraphilias occur in men. Close to 100% of exhibitionists are males exposing themselves to women. Fetishism, a disorder in which sexual arousal involves the use of inanimate objects that are typically associated with the body e.g. shoes, gloves, undergarments, etc.,also almost always occurs in men. 95% of pedophiles are heterosexual. Most pedophiles also have engaged in voyeurism, exhibitionism and rape.
Saddock BJ, Kaplan VA: Kaplan and Saddock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry: Behavioral Sciences/Clinical Psychiatry 10th ed. Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2007.
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Question 40 of 88
40. Question
An 8 y.o. profoundly intellectually disabled boy is referred to you for hyperactivity and features of autism.His pediatrician found that he had microcephalyhe and diagnosed him with an inherited condition. On your examination, the boy smiled, laughed and had ataxic movements. What is your diagnosis?
Correct
Angelman Syndrome is a heritable cause of intellectual disability that occurs when the deletion at 15q is maternally inherited. It occurs in boys and girls and is comprised of profound intellectual disability, microcephaly, paroxysms of laughter, ataxia and autistic features. Rett syndrome is heritable, but is present exclusively in girls (and XXY boys) so this is incorrect as a diagnosis. Young girls with Rett have characteristic hand stereotypies and they do have microcephaly but not bursts of laughter and ataxia. Prader-Willi is a heritable cause of intellectual disability (paternal deletion at 15q) but classically has hyperphagia, obesity, non food-related obsessions and severe behavior problems. In Williams one sees “elfin” facies and “cocktail party chatter” and some level of intellectual disability.Sadock BJ Kaplan HI Sadock VA: Kaplan & Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry: Behavioral Sciences/Clinical Psychiatry. 2007. Lippincott Williams & Wilkins: Philadelphia, pp 1138-57.
Incorrect
Angelman Syndrome is a heritable cause of intellectual disability that occurs when the deletion at 15q is maternally inherited. It occurs in boys and girls and is comprised of profound intellectual disability, microcephaly, paroxysms of laughter, ataxia and autistic features. Rett syndrome is heritable, but is present exclusively in girls (and XXY boys) so this is incorrect as a diagnosis. Young girls with Rett have characteristic hand stereotypies and they do have microcephaly but not bursts of laughter and ataxia. Prader-Willi is a heritable cause of intellectual disability (paternal deletion at 15q) but classically has hyperphagia, obesity, non food-related obsessions and severe behavior problems. In Williams one sees “elfin” facies and “cocktail party chatter” and some level of intellectual disability.Sadock BJ Kaplan HI Sadock VA: Kaplan & Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry: Behavioral Sciences/Clinical Psychiatry. 2007. Lippincott Williams & Wilkins: Philadelphia, pp 1138-57.
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Question 41 of 88
41. Question
Which is a common side effect of stimulants?
Correct
Mild elevations of pulse and blood pressure are a common side effect of stimulants. A recommendation for pediatric or cardiology consultation and EKG or further work-up is indicated if there is a family history of early/sudden death or congenital cardiac condition or dysrhythmia in the child. Stimulants do not cause evening sedation (and can cause insomnia.) Lithium is known to cause increased thirst. SSRIs and antipsychotics are known to increase appetite (stimulants typically decrease appetite.)
Spencer T et al: Assessment and Treatment of Attention-Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder in Martin A et al. (Eds.) Pediatric Psychopharmacology: Principles and Practice, 2001. Oxford University Press, New York, pp 437-52.
Incorrect
Mild elevations of pulse and blood pressure are a common side effect of stimulants. A recommendation for pediatric or cardiology consultation and EKG or further work-up is indicated if there is a family history of early/sudden death or congenital cardiac condition or dysrhythmia in the child. Stimulants do not cause evening sedation (and can cause insomnia.) Lithium is known to cause increased thirst. SSRIs and antipsychotics are known to increase appetite (stimulants typically decrease appetite.)
Spencer T et al: Assessment and Treatment of Attention-Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder in Martin A et al. (Eds.) Pediatric Psychopharmacology: Principles and Practice, 2001. Oxford University Press, New York, pp 437-52.
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Question 42 of 88
42. Question
A 24 y.o. female experiences anxiety in multiple social situations. She avoids going to parties, sharing her opinions in the weekly staff meeting at her job and eating out in restaurants because she worries that she will be embarrassed or judged negatively by others. When forced to speak in a public setting, she experiences flushing, palpitations, and tremulousness. Which medication is least likely to be effective?
Correct
This woman suffers from Social Anxiety Disorder Generalized type. Paroxetine, sertraline and venlafaxine have FDA approval for the treatment. Off label, all SSRIS, MAOIs, and benzodiazepines have demonstrated efficacy. B-blockers are effective off label treatments for performance anxiety, but are not useful in generalized social anxiety. Tricyclic antidepressants, which are effective in the treatment of both GAD and panic disorder, have not been shown to be helpful in the treatment of social anxiety disorder.
Labbate LA, Fava M, et al: Handbook of Psychiatric Drug Therapy, 6th ed. Lippincott Williams & Williams, 2010. p175-179.Incorrect
This woman suffers from Social Anxiety Disorder Generalized type. Paroxetine, sertraline and venlafaxine have FDA approval for the treatment. Off label, all SSRIS, MAOIs, and benzodiazepines have demonstrated efficacy. B-blockers are effective off label treatments for performance anxiety, but are not useful in generalized social anxiety. Tricyclic antidepressants, which are effective in the treatment of both GAD and panic disorder, have not been shown to be helpful in the treatment of social anxiety disorder.
Labbate LA, Fava M, et al: Handbook of Psychiatric Drug Therapy, 6th ed. Lippincott Williams & Williams, 2010. p175-179. -
Question 43 of 88
43. Question
Which is not a common side effect of extended-release guanfacine?
Correct
Guanfacine (and extended-release Guanfacine) as well as clonidine, both alpha 2-adrenergic agonists, commonly present with side effects of drowsiness, dizziness and dry mouth. Increased urination is seen with lithium treatment, not guanfacine.
Labbate LA et al: Handbook of Psychiatric Drug Therapy. 2010. Lippincott, Williams & Wilkins: Philadelphia. p. 281.Incorrect
Guanfacine (and extended-release Guanfacine) as well as clonidine, both alpha 2-adrenergic agonists, commonly present with side effects of drowsiness, dizziness and dry mouth. Increased urination is seen with lithium treatment, not guanfacine.
Labbate LA et al: Handbook of Psychiatric Drug Therapy. 2010. Lippincott, Williams & Wilkins: Philadelphia. p. 281. -
Question 44 of 88
44. Question
Which of the following is a side effect of bupropion?
Correct
Bupropion acts to enhance transmission of dopamine and norepinephrine and does not exert influence on serotonin receptors. Common side effects include headache, anxiety, insomnia, GI upset and sweating.. Tremor and akathisia can also occur. Bupropion is not associated with weight gain (and may cause weight loss , sexual dysfunction or cardiac conduction problems. It does not cause daytime sedation or orthostatic hypotension. Bupropion is not associated with anticholinergic side effects. Daily dose should not exceed 450 mg. as dose dependent seizures can occur when this level is exceeded. Because it facilitates dopamine transmission, it may be a good choice for use in patients with Parkinson’s disease.
Hales RF, Yudofsky SC, Gabbard GO (eds.) The American Psychiatric PublishingTextbook of Psychiatry: 5th ed. American Psychiatric Publishing, 2008
Labbate LA, Fava M, et al: Handbook of Psychiatric Drug Therapy, 6th ed. Lippincott Williams & Williams, 2010Incorrect
Bupropion acts to enhance transmission of dopamine and norepinephrine and does not exert influence on serotonin receptors. Common side effects include headache, anxiety, insomnia, GI upset and sweating.. Tremor and akathisia can also occur. Bupropion is not associated with weight gain (and may cause weight loss , sexual dysfunction or cardiac conduction problems. It does not cause daytime sedation or orthostatic hypotension. Bupropion is not associated with anticholinergic side effects. Daily dose should not exceed 450 mg. as dose dependent seizures can occur when this level is exceeded. Because it facilitates dopamine transmission, it may be a good choice for use in patients with Parkinson’s disease.
Hales RF, Yudofsky SC, Gabbard GO (eds.) The American Psychiatric PublishingTextbook of Psychiatry: 5th ed. American Psychiatric Publishing, 2008
Labbate LA, Fava M, et al: Handbook of Psychiatric Drug Therapy, 6th ed. Lippincott Williams & Williams, 2010 -
Question 45 of 88
45. Question
Which medication has not been approved by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) for treatment of fibromyalgia?
Correct
Since 2007, the FDA has approved 3 medications for the treatment of fibromyalgia: pregabalin (Lyrica), duloxetine (Cymbalta), and milnacipran (Savella). Pregabalin acts as a Alpha2-delta ligand, while the latter two are serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRI). Venlafaxine is also an SNRI, but has not been FDA-approved for fibromyalgia. Tricyclic antidepressants have been shown to be helpful as well.
Nickerson B: Recent Advances in the Treatment of Pain Associated with Fibromyalgia. US Pharmacist. 2009;34(9):49-55
Incorrect
Since 2007, the FDA has approved 3 medications for the treatment of fibromyalgia: pregabalin (Lyrica), duloxetine (Cymbalta), and milnacipran (Savella). Pregabalin acts as a Alpha2-delta ligand, while the latter two are serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRI). Venlafaxine is also an SNRI, but has not been FDA-approved for fibromyalgia. Tricyclic antidepressants have been shown to be helpful as well.
Nickerson B: Recent Advances in the Treatment of Pain Associated with Fibromyalgia. US Pharmacist. 2009;34(9):49-55
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Question 46 of 88
46. Question
A 71 y.o. man develops confusion after undergoing a coronary artery bypass graft (CABG). Which is the primary cardiac concern with the use of antipsychotics?
Correct
The use of antipsychotics have been recognized to increase the risk for markers of cardiac dysfunction (e.g. prolonged QTc), ventricular arrhythmias (including torsade de pointe), and even sudden cardiac death. The association may be more common in elderly patients and with the use of typical antipsychotic agents. Leonard CE, Freeman CP, Newcomb CW, et al: antipsychotics and the risks of sudden cardiac death and all-cause death: Cohort studies in Medicaid and dually-eligible Medicaid-Medicare beneficiaries of five states. J Clin Exp Cardiolog. 2013; Suppl 10(6): 1–9.
Incorrect
The use of antipsychotics have been recognized to increase the risk for markers of cardiac dysfunction (e.g. prolonged QTc), ventricular arrhythmias (including torsade de pointe), and even sudden cardiac death. The association may be more common in elderly patients and with the use of typical antipsychotic agents. Leonard CE, Freeman CP, Newcomb CW, et al: antipsychotics and the risks of sudden cardiac death and all-cause death: Cohort studies in Medicaid and dually-eligible Medicaid-Medicare beneficiaries of five states. J Clin Exp Cardiolog. 2013; Suppl 10(6): 1–9.
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Question 47 of 88
47. Question
A 45 y.o. woman admitted to the hospital with Crohn's disease was treated with steroids for a month. The prednisone was stopped two weeks ago upon her discharge. She has had apathy, crying spells, low energy, and poor appetite since leaving the hospital. Her blood pressure is low. What is likely to be the best treatment?
Correct
Adrenal insufficiency or Addison's Disease is an often overlooked endocrine condition with prominent fatigue that can mimic depression. Other common symptoms include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, muscle pain, and sweating, Weight loss and postural hypotension are common signs. The treatment involves replacement corticosteroids.
Margolin L, Cope DK, Bakst-Sisser R, et al: The steroid withdrawal syndrome: A review of the implications, etiology, and treatments. J Pain Sympt Management 2007: 33(2):224-8.
Ten S, New M, MacClaren N: Addison’s disease 2001. J Clin Endocrinol Metab 2001. 86: 2909–Incorrect
Adrenal insufficiency or Addison's Disease is an often overlooked endocrine condition with prominent fatigue that can mimic depression. Other common symptoms include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, muscle pain, and sweating, Weight loss and postural hypotension are common signs. The treatment involves replacement corticosteroids.
Margolin L, Cope DK, Bakst-Sisser R, et al: The steroid withdrawal syndrome: A review of the implications, etiology, and treatments. J Pain Sympt Management 2007: 33(2):224-8.
Ten S, New M, MacClaren N: Addison’s disease 2001. J Clin Endocrinol Metab 2001. 86: 2909– -
Question 48 of 88
48. Question
Bupropion is contraindicated in which disorder?
Correct
Bupropion doses should not exceed 450mg. daily due to increased risk of seizures at higher doses. Bupropion use is contraindicated in patients with bulimia and anorexia, as these patients demonstrated an increased susceptibility to seizures in premarketing trials. Bupropion has been shown to be effective in treating patients with seasonal affective disorder, and is a second line treatment for ADHD. Marketed under the name Zyban, it is an approved treatment for smoking cessation. Bupropion may be useful in the treatment of depression in bipolar disorder, because it is less likely to induce a switch to mania. Bupropion may exacerbate anxiety symptoms in patients with panic disorder or other anxiety disorders.
Saddock B, Saddock V, Sussman N: Pocket Handbook of Psychiatric Drug Treatment 5th ed. Lippincott Williams &Wilkins, 2011.
Labbate LA, Fava M, et al: Handbook of Psychiatric Drug Therapy, 6th ed. Lippincott Williams & Williams, 2010Saddock B, Saddock V, Sussman N: Pocket Handbook of Psychiatric Drug Treatment 5th ed. Lippincott Williams &Wilkins, 2011
Incorrect
Bupropion doses should not exceed 450mg. daily due to increased risk of seizures at higher doses. Bupropion use is contraindicated in patients with bulimia and anorexia, as these patients demonstrated an increased susceptibility to seizures in premarketing trials. Bupropion has been shown to be effective in treating patients with seasonal affective disorder, and is a second line treatment for ADHD. Marketed under the name Zyban, it is an approved treatment for smoking cessation. Bupropion may be useful in the treatment of depression in bipolar disorder, because it is less likely to induce a switch to mania. Bupropion may exacerbate anxiety symptoms in patients with panic disorder or other anxiety disorders.
Saddock B, Saddock V, Sussman N: Pocket Handbook of Psychiatric Drug Treatment 5th ed. Lippincott Williams &Wilkins, 2011.
Labbate LA, Fava M, et al: Handbook of Psychiatric Drug Therapy, 6th ed. Lippincott Williams & Williams, 2010Saddock B, Saddock V, Sussman N: Pocket Handbook of Psychiatric Drug Treatment 5th ed. Lippincott Williams &Wilkins, 2011
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Question 49 of 88
49. Question
A patient with anorexia, restricting type is more likely to have which of the findings below than a patient with bulimia who purges regularly:
Correct
Compared to those with bulimia, patients with anorexia nervosa have a lower nutrition status and thus higher rates of medical complications including effects on thyroid (euthyroid sick syndrome) and sex hormones (including decreased LH and FSH), amenorrhea, electrolyte abnormalities, osteoporosis, cardiac malfunction (including bradycardia and arrhythmia), and overall mortality. An elevated amylase is associated with purging in either condition. In this case the bulimic patient who purges is more likely to have an elevated amylase than a non-purging anorexic patient.Maine M, McGilley BH, Bunnell, DW: Medical Assessment of Eating Disorders, Chapter 6, 89-110, in Treatment of Eating Disorders, edited by Maine M, McGilley BH, Bunnell, DW, 2010, London, Elsevier Inc.
Incorrect
Compared to those with bulimia, patients with anorexia nervosa have a lower nutrition status and thus higher rates of medical complications including effects on thyroid (euthyroid sick syndrome) and sex hormones (including decreased LH and FSH), amenorrhea, electrolyte abnormalities, osteoporosis, cardiac malfunction (including bradycardia and arrhythmia), and overall mortality. An elevated amylase is associated with purging in either condition. In this case the bulimic patient who purges is more likely to have an elevated amylase than a non-purging anorexic patient.Maine M, McGilley BH, Bunnell, DW: Medical Assessment of Eating Disorders, Chapter 6, 89-110, in Treatment of Eating Disorders, edited by Maine M, McGilley BH, Bunnell, DW, 2010, London, Elsevier Inc.
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Question 50 of 88
50. Question
A 40 y.o. man with a history of coronary artery disease (CAD), hypothyroidism, and obesity comes to your clinic for an evaluation of depression. The patient says he has been upset because he was demoted to the mail room last month (he used to be a delivery truck driver), because he has been falling asleep at work. The patient says he was having trouble staying asleep, but he is now taking eszopiclone and is sleeping fine. He lists fatigue, guilt (over feeling lazy), overeating, and poor concentration as his other symptoms. He denies a history of manic or psychotic symptoms, substance abuse and suicidality. His TSH is in the normal range. What do you recommend?
Correct
Obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) is common occurring in up to 17% of men. OSA can lead to symptoms that mimic depression: fatigue, lack of energy, and poor concentration. Sufferers are more likely to be involved in car accidents. Medications may be used to increase alertness or to treat associated depressive symptoms, but continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) has been shown to decrease somnolence and to improve the quality of life, mood, and alertness in patients with OSA. First, however, patients must be evaluated with polysomnography. Morning cortisol should be checked in patients with presentations suspicious for adrenal insufficiency, which would include those with prominent fatigue, nausea/anorexia, weight loss, and hypotension.
Myers KA, Mrkobrada M, Simel DL: Does this patient have obstructive sleep apnea? The Rational Clinical Examination Systematic Review. JAMA. 2013;310(7):731-41.
Flemons WW: Obstructive sleep apnea. N Engl J Med 2002; 347:498-504.Incorrect
Obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) is common occurring in up to 17% of men. OSA can lead to symptoms that mimic depression: fatigue, lack of energy, and poor concentration. Sufferers are more likely to be involved in car accidents. Medications may be used to increase alertness or to treat associated depressive symptoms, but continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) has been shown to decrease somnolence and to improve the quality of life, mood, and alertness in patients with OSA. First, however, patients must be evaluated with polysomnography. Morning cortisol should be checked in patients with presentations suspicious for adrenal insufficiency, which would include those with prominent fatigue, nausea/anorexia, weight loss, and hypotension.
Myers KA, Mrkobrada M, Simel DL: Does this patient have obstructive sleep apnea? The Rational Clinical Examination Systematic Review. JAMA. 2013;310(7):731-41.
Flemons WW: Obstructive sleep apnea. N Engl J Med 2002; 347:498-504. -
Question 51 of 88
51. Question
Which antidepressant is least likely to be associated with sexual dysfunction?
Correct
The SSRIs and SNRIs can all cause sexual dysfunction. Mirtazipine and bupropion are notable for their lack of association with sexual dysfunction. Common side effects of mirtazipine include weight gain, sedation, and dizziness.
Hales RF, Yudofsky SC, Gabbard GO (eds.) The American Psychiatric PublishingTextbook of Psychiatry: 5th ed. American Psychiatric Publishing, 2008
Incorrect
The SSRIs and SNRIs can all cause sexual dysfunction. Mirtazipine and bupropion are notable for their lack of association with sexual dysfunction. Common side effects of mirtazipine include weight gain, sedation, and dizziness.
Hales RF, Yudofsky SC, Gabbard GO (eds.) The American Psychiatric PublishingTextbook of Psychiatry: 5th ed. American Psychiatric Publishing, 2008
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Question 52 of 88
52. Question
Which medication is most likely to worsen psoriasis?
Correct
Psoriasis is a chronic, relapsing skin disease presenting with erythematous, scaling papules, and indurated plaques, arising preferentially on the elbows, knees, and scalp. Common trigger factors include psychological stress, physical trauma, infections, certain drugs (lithium, antimalarials, interferon, β-blockers), corticosteroid withdrawal, and alcohol use.
Gupta, AK: Psychocutaneous Disorders, in Kaplan & Sadock’s Comprehensive Textbook of Psychiatry, 9th edition. Sadock BJ, Sadock VA, Ruiz P(eds). (2009). Philadelphia. Lippincott Williams & Wilkins.
Incorrect
Psoriasis is a chronic, relapsing skin disease presenting with erythematous, scaling papules, and indurated plaques, arising preferentially on the elbows, knees, and scalp. Common trigger factors include psychological stress, physical trauma, infections, certain drugs (lithium, antimalarials, interferon, β-blockers), corticosteroid withdrawal, and alcohol use.
Gupta, AK: Psychocutaneous Disorders, in Kaplan & Sadock’s Comprehensive Textbook of Psychiatry, 9th edition. Sadock BJ, Sadock VA, Ruiz P(eds). (2009). Philadelphia. Lippincott Williams & Wilkins.
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Question 53 of 88
53. Question
What medication is most likely to improve cognitive functioning in patients with human immunodeficiency virus [HIV] dementia?
Correct
HIV-associated dementia (HAD) is one of the leading causes of dementia in those under 60 years of age. Risk factors include higher viral load, lower educational level, anemia, older age and female sex. The incidence of HAD has decreased significantly since the advent of antiretroviral medication, including zidovudine.
Tozzi V, Balestra P, Libertone R, et al: Cognitive function in treated HIV patients. Neurobehavioral HIV Medicine 2010; 2: 95–113.
Incorrect
HIV-associated dementia (HAD) is one of the leading causes of dementia in those under 60 years of age. Risk factors include higher viral load, lower educational level, anemia, older age and female sex. The incidence of HAD has decreased significantly since the advent of antiretroviral medication, including zidovudine.
Tozzi V, Balestra P, Libertone R, et al: Cognitive function in treated HIV patients. Neurobehavioral HIV Medicine 2010; 2: 95–113.
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Question 54 of 88
54. Question
Which is true regarding the epidemiology of mood disorders?
Correct
Major Depressive Disorder is twice as common in women and tends to have a later age of onset than bipolar disorder. Bipolar disorder occurs with equal frequency in men and women. Rapid cycling is occurs much more frequently in women than men.
Saddock BJ, Kaplan VA: Kaplan and Saddock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry: Behavioral Sciences/Clinical Psychiatry 10th ed. Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2007.Incorrect
Major Depressive Disorder is twice as common in women and tends to have a later age of onset than bipolar disorder. Bipolar disorder occurs with equal frequency in men and women. Rapid cycling is occurs much more frequently in women than men.
Saddock BJ, Kaplan VA: Kaplan and Saddock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry: Behavioral Sciences/Clinical Psychiatry 10th ed. Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2007. -
Question 55 of 88
55. Question
All of the following interventions have shown efficacy in the treatment of nicotine dependence except:
Correct
Medications that are FDA approved for nicotine dependence include Varenicline (Chantix), bupropion SR (Zyban), and nicotine replacement therapy. Physician advice has been shown to be effective as part of the “5 A’s” (Ask, Advise, Assess, Assist, Arrange). Acupuncture has not been shown to demonstrate efficacy.
Textbook of Substance Abuse Treatment: APA Press, 4th Ed, Galanter, Kleber, 2008.Incorrect
Medications that are FDA approved for nicotine dependence include Varenicline (Chantix), bupropion SR (Zyban), and nicotine replacement therapy. Physician advice has been shown to be effective as part of the “5 A’s” (Ask, Advise, Assess, Assist, Arrange). Acupuncture has not been shown to demonstrate efficacy.
Textbook of Substance Abuse Treatment: APA Press, 4th Ed, Galanter, Kleber, 2008. -
Question 56 of 88
56. Question
A 19 y.o. woman is brought to the ER from an Electronic Dance Music (EDM) festival with elevated blood pressure, temperature of 103.5 ̊, agitation, and paranoia. Which of the following drugs is the most likely cause of her presentation?
Correct
The most likely cause of her delirium is MDMA (Ecstasy, Molly), which can cause agitation and paranoia; however, the greatest concern is the hypertension and hyperthermia that can lead to cardiovascular collapse. The other drugs do not produce this combination of symptoms.
Lowinson and Ruiz’s Substance Abuse: A Comprehensive Textbook, 5th Edition, Ed: Ruiz, Strain 2011
Incorrect
The most likely cause of her delirium is MDMA (Ecstasy, Molly), which can cause agitation and paranoia; however, the greatest concern is the hypertension and hyperthermia that can lead to cardiovascular collapse. The other drugs do not produce this combination of symptoms.
Lowinson and Ruiz’s Substance Abuse: A Comprehensive Textbook, 5th Edition, Ed: Ruiz, Strain 2011
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Question 57 of 88
57. Question
A 55 y.o. male with a long history of alcohol abuse presents with symptoms consistent with alcohol withdrawal. He was diagnosed with cirrhosis of the liver last year. Which benzodiazepine would be the best choice to treat his withdrawal symptoms?
Correct
When benzodiazepines are used in patients with cirrhosis, those with shorter half lives and without active metabolites like lorazepam and oxazepam are preferred. Benzodiazepines which undergo oxidative metabolism in the liver, can accumulate to toxic levels in patients with cirrhosis. Despite its short half life, levels of alprazolam, which also undergoes oxidation, can accumulate to dangerous levels in a patients with a cirrhotic liver.
Labbate LA, Fava M, et al: Handbook of Psychiatric Drug Therapy, 6th ed. Lippincott Williams & Williams, 2010.
Saddock B, Saddock V, Sussman N: Pocket Handbook of Psychiatric Drug Treatment 5th ed. Lippincott Williams &Wilkins, 2011.Incorrect
When benzodiazepines are used in patients with cirrhosis, those with shorter half lives and without active metabolites like lorazepam and oxazepam are preferred. Benzodiazepines which undergo oxidative metabolism in the liver, can accumulate to toxic levels in patients with cirrhosis. Despite its short half life, levels of alprazolam, which also undergoes oxidation, can accumulate to dangerous levels in a patients with a cirrhotic liver.
Labbate LA, Fava M, et al: Handbook of Psychiatric Drug Therapy, 6th ed. Lippincott Williams & Williams, 2010.
Saddock B, Saddock V, Sussman N: Pocket Handbook of Psychiatric Drug Treatment 5th ed. Lippincott Williams &Wilkins, 2011. -
Question 58 of 88
58. Question
Which of the following is the co-occurring psychiatric disorder most likely to be associated with development of adolescent substance abuse?
Correct
Conduct disorder both precedes and predicts substance abuse in adolescents. Its risk is greater than for ADHD, PTSD and Bipolar Disorder.
Lowinson and Ruiz’s Substance Abuse: A Comprehensive Textbook, 5th Edition, Ed: Ruiz, Strain 2011.Incorrect
Conduct disorder both precedes and predicts substance abuse in adolescents. Its risk is greater than for ADHD, PTSD and Bipolar Disorder.
Lowinson and Ruiz’s Substance Abuse: A Comprehensive Textbook, 5th Edition, Ed: Ruiz, Strain 2011. -
Question 59 of 88
59. Question
Which of the following statements is true about patients with co-occurring psychiatric and substance use disorders?
Correct
Patients with co-occurring disorders my benefit from self-help groups (e.g., “Double Trouble”). Clinicians should treat psychosis, irrespective of etiology, with neuroleptics. No medications have proven to be effective for cocaine use. Benzodiazepines may be effective in anxiety disorders where patients have not responded to SSRIs, buspirone, etc, where they are stable in an Methadone Maintenance Treatment Program (MMTP) with a good therapeutic alliance.Reference: Textbook of Substance Abuse Treatment: APA Press, 4th Ed, Galanter, Kleber, 2008
Lowinson and Ruiz’s Substance Abuse: A Comprehensive Textbook, 5th Edition, Ed: Ruiz, Strain 2011Incorrect
Patients with co-occurring disorders my benefit from self-help groups (e.g., “Double Trouble”). Clinicians should treat psychosis, irrespective of etiology, with neuroleptics. No medications have proven to be effective for cocaine use. Benzodiazepines may be effective in anxiety disorders where patients have not responded to SSRIs, buspirone, etc, where they are stable in an Methadone Maintenance Treatment Program (MMTP) with a good therapeutic alliance.Reference: Textbook of Substance Abuse Treatment: APA Press, 4th Ed, Galanter, Kleber, 2008
Lowinson and Ruiz’s Substance Abuse: A Comprehensive Textbook, 5th Edition, Ed: Ruiz, Strain 2011 -
Question 60 of 88
60. Question
The primary physician of a retired 67 y.o. waitress sends her for a psychiatric consultation because she has been acting strangely. The psychiatrist determines that she has dementia, inattention, and myoclonus. Further evaluation finds normal routine blood tests, HIV testing, cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) profile, and MRI, but it discloses periodic complexes on her EEG. She declines rapidly and expires six months after the consultation. Which is the most likely cause of her dementia and death?
Correct
Her dementia, accompanied by myoclonus and an EEG showing periodic complexes, progressing to death in 6 months characterizes Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease. Finding a 14-3-3 protein in her CSF would have given further diagnostic support. A brain biopsy would have shown spongiform changes, but clinicians do not routinely perform biopsies in suspected Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease cases because the material, which is infectious, would contaminate the surgical instruments and expose the surgical and pathology teams. Another reason for not performing a biopsy is that the illness remains untreatable. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is a frequently occurring neurodegenerative cause of dementia that follows a rapid, fatal course. As Dr. Stanely Prusiner, the Nobel-prize winning discoverer of the mechanism underlying Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease and related illnesses, explained at the American Psychiatric Association’s 2013 meeting, prions cause these illnesses by conformational conversion of prion proteins.
Prusiner SB: Cell biology. A unifying role for prions in neurodegenerative disease. Science 2012; 336: 1511-3.
Incorrect
Her dementia, accompanied by myoclonus and an EEG showing periodic complexes, progressing to death in 6 months characterizes Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease. Finding a 14-3-3 protein in her CSF would have given further diagnostic support. A brain biopsy would have shown spongiform changes, but clinicians do not routinely perform biopsies in suspected Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease cases because the material, which is infectious, would contaminate the surgical instruments and expose the surgical and pathology teams. Another reason for not performing a biopsy is that the illness remains untreatable. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is a frequently occurring neurodegenerative cause of dementia that follows a rapid, fatal course. As Dr. Stanely Prusiner, the Nobel-prize winning discoverer of the mechanism underlying Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease and related illnesses, explained at the American Psychiatric Association’s 2013 meeting, prions cause these illnesses by conformational conversion of prion proteins.
Prusiner SB: Cell biology. A unifying role for prions in neurodegenerative disease. Science 2012; 336: 1511-3.
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Question 61 of 88
61. Question
Which is true about the relationship between tics/Tourette's and ADHD?
Correct
ADHD is always more impairing than tics when the two are co-morbid. The severity of ADHD, not tics, is a good predictor of social difficulties, particularly with peers. Methylphenidate and clonidine can be used either alone or in combination when patients have comorbid tics/Tourette’s and ADHD, no matter which condition is worse. By history, ADHD will precede tics, usually by 2-3 years.
Bloch MH et al. Meta-Analysis: Treatment of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder in children with comorbid tic disorders. J Amer Acad Child Adol Psychiatry 2009; 48: 884-93.
Incorrect
ADHD is always more impairing than tics when the two are co-morbid. The severity of ADHD, not tics, is a good predictor of social difficulties, particularly with peers. Methylphenidate and clonidine can be used either alone or in combination when patients have comorbid tics/Tourette’s and ADHD, no matter which condition is worse. By history, ADHD will precede tics, usually by 2-3 years.
Bloch MH et al. Meta-Analysis: Treatment of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder in children with comorbid tic disorders. J Amer Acad Child Adol Psychiatry 2009; 48: 884-93.
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Question 62 of 88
62. Question
Neonatal abstinence was shown to be mildest with use of which medication for the treatment of opiate dependence in pregnant women?
Correct
While methadone and buprenorphine have both been demonstrated to be safe during pregnancy for the mother and fetus, the National Institute of Drug Abuse (NIDA)–sponsored MOTHER study showed milder neonatal abstinence with buprenorphine compared to methadone.
Jones ME, et al: Neonatal abstinence syndrome after methadone or buprenorphine exposure. N Engl J Med 2010; 363: 24: 2330-32.
Incorrect
While methadone and buprenorphine have both been demonstrated to be safe during pregnancy for the mother and fetus, the National Institute of Drug Abuse (NIDA)–sponsored MOTHER study showed milder neonatal abstinence with buprenorphine compared to methadone.
Jones ME, et al: Neonatal abstinence syndrome after methadone or buprenorphine exposure. N Engl J Med 2010; 363: 24: 2330-32.
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Question 63 of 88
63. Question
A 53 y.o. man is brought in by his uncle for a psychiatric evaluation because he has been acting aggressively, smoking excessively, and losing his ability to run his family's restaurant business. The patient's father had developed dementia when he was 60-years-old. A neurologist found no abnormal neurologic physical signs and an internist eliminated general medical conditions. The psychiatrist found that the patient was disinhibited and apathetic. Although he lacked empathy and impaired executive ability, he scored 27 out of 30 on the Mini-Mental Status Test and performed satisfactorily of other tests. Of the following, which is the most likely cause of the patient's deterioration?
Correct
Frontotemporal dementia, a neurodegenerative illness, causes dementia that is initially overshadowed by personality changes and behavioral disturbances. The diagnostic criteria require 3 of 6 disturbances: disinhibition, apathy, loss of sympathy, perseveration or compulsive behaviors, hyperorality, and impaired executive ability. Physicians might easily misdiagnosis frontotemporal dementia for bipolar disorder or late-life depression. Frontotemporal dementia is a common cause of dementia that characteristically has a relatively young age of onset (53 years), follows a rapidly fatal course (4 years), develops in men more than women, and occurs in multiple family members.
Forman MS, Farmer J, Johnson JK, et al: Frontotemporal dementia. Ann Neurol 2006; 59: 952-62.
Kertesz A, Blair M, McMonagle P, et al: The diagnosis and course of frontotemporal dementia. Alzheimer Dis Assoc Disord 2007; 21: 155-63.Incorrect
Frontotemporal dementia, a neurodegenerative illness, causes dementia that is initially overshadowed by personality changes and behavioral disturbances. The diagnostic criteria require 3 of 6 disturbances: disinhibition, apathy, loss of sympathy, perseveration or compulsive behaviors, hyperorality, and impaired executive ability. Physicians might easily misdiagnosis frontotemporal dementia for bipolar disorder or late-life depression. Frontotemporal dementia is a common cause of dementia that characteristically has a relatively young age of onset (53 years), follows a rapidly fatal course (4 years), develops in men more than women, and occurs in multiple family members.
Forman MS, Farmer J, Johnson JK, et al: Frontotemporal dementia. Ann Neurol 2006; 59: 952-62.
Kertesz A, Blair M, McMonagle P, et al: The diagnosis and course of frontotemporal dementia. Alzheimer Dis Assoc Disord 2007; 21: 155-63. -
Question 64 of 88
64. Question
Each of the following somatoform disorders is more common in women except:
Correct
There is a large body of literature on the gender differences in the somatoform disorders. The evidence points to a higher prevalence of these diagnoses in women except for hypochondriasis which is found equally in men and women.
Barsky AJ, Peekna HM, Borus JF: Somatic symptom reporting in women and men. J Gen Int Med 2001;16:266-75.
Incorrect
There is a large body of literature on the gender differences in the somatoform disorders. The evidence points to a higher prevalence of these diagnoses in women except for hypochondriasis which is found equally in men and women.
Barsky AJ, Peekna HM, Borus JF: Somatic symptom reporting in women and men. J Gen Int Med 2001;16:266-75.
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Question 65 of 88
65. Question
Which of the following is true regarding Down's syndrome?
Correct
Down's syndrome is caused by a trisomy at chromosome 21 and includes intellectual disability of mild-moderate level, characteristic physical findings including stunted growth, low tone, small genitalia and facial dysmorphia and risk of dementia in later life. This risk is of more concern now that people with Down's have a greater life expectancy. The intellectual decline in the 40s and 50s is associated with an excess of beta amyloid. Down's syndrome is negatively associated with autism. Prader-Willi is caused by a paternally-inherited translocation at 15Q. It is comprised of hyperphagia, non food-related compulsive behavior and borderline-moderate intellectual disability. Fragile X is caused by a mutation at the “fragile” site of the X chromosome (Xq27.3). Fragile X is the most common inherited cause of intellectual disability, causes moderate to severe disability and, besides a long face and large ears, is also associated with macro-orchidism, ADHD, autism and social anxiety.
Sadock BJ, Kaplan HI, Sadock VA: Kaplan & Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry: Behavioral Sciences/Clinical Psychiatry. 2007 Lippincott Williams & Wilkins: Philadelphia pp 1138-57.
Car J: Six weeks to 45 Years: A longitudinal study of a population with Down syndrome. J Applied Res Intellect Disabil 2012; 25: 414-22.Incorrect
Down's syndrome is caused by a trisomy at chromosome 21 and includes intellectual disability of mild-moderate level, characteristic physical findings including stunted growth, low tone, small genitalia and facial dysmorphia and risk of dementia in later life. This risk is of more concern now that people with Down's have a greater life expectancy. The intellectual decline in the 40s and 50s is associated with an excess of beta amyloid. Down's syndrome is negatively associated with autism. Prader-Willi is caused by a paternally-inherited translocation at 15Q. It is comprised of hyperphagia, non food-related compulsive behavior and borderline-moderate intellectual disability. Fragile X is caused by a mutation at the “fragile” site of the X chromosome (Xq27.3). Fragile X is the most common inherited cause of intellectual disability, causes moderate to severe disability and, besides a long face and large ears, is also associated with macro-orchidism, ADHD, autism and social anxiety.
Sadock BJ, Kaplan HI, Sadock VA: Kaplan & Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry: Behavioral Sciences/Clinical Psychiatry. 2007 Lippincott Williams & Wilkins: Philadelphia pp 1138-57.
Car J: Six weeks to 45 Years: A longitudinal study of a population with Down syndrome. J Applied Res Intellect Disabil 2012; 25: 414-22. -
Question 66 of 88
66. Question
A child is able to recognize that a ball made of playdoh has “the same amount of playdoh” when it is rolled into a flat shape by the examiner. This is an example of:
Correct
This is an example of the concept of operational thought described by Piaget and typically emerging between the ages of 7-11 years. Normally-developing children in this developmental stage are able to use logical thought to order, seriate and group objects based on common characteristics. The concept of conservation attained in this developmental phase refers to the ability to recognize that even when the shape of an object changes, the amount of matter is conserved.
Incorrect
This is an example of the concept of operational thought described by Piaget and typically emerging between the ages of 7-11 years. Normally-developing children in this developmental stage are able to use logical thought to order, seriate and group objects based on common characteristics. The concept of conservation attained in this developmental phase refers to the ability to recognize that even when the shape of an object changes, the amount of matter is conserved.
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Question 67 of 88
67. Question
Which of the following conventional antipsychotic medications is most likely to cause anticholinergic side effects?
Correct
High potency conventional antipsychotics, like haloperidol, are most likely to cause extrapyramidal side effects, while low potency agents, like thioridazine, are more likely to cause anticholinergic side effects (blurred vision, dry mouth, urinary hesitancy, constipation, tachycardia), alpha adrenergic side effects (orthostasis) as well as weight gain and sedation (mediated by histamine and alpha adrenergic receptors). Perphenazine and thiothixene are both midrange in potency, and less likely to cause anticholinergic side effects. Labbate LA, Fava M, et al: Handbook of Psychiatric Drug Therapy, 6th ed. Lippincott Williams & Williams, 2010.
Incorrect
High potency conventional antipsychotics, like haloperidol, are most likely to cause extrapyramidal side effects, while low potency agents, like thioridazine, are more likely to cause anticholinergic side effects (blurred vision, dry mouth, urinary hesitancy, constipation, tachycardia), alpha adrenergic side effects (orthostasis) as well as weight gain and sedation (mediated by histamine and alpha adrenergic receptors). Perphenazine and thiothixene are both midrange in potency, and less likely to cause anticholinergic side effects. Labbate LA, Fava M, et al: Handbook of Psychiatric Drug Therapy, 6th ed. Lippincott Williams & Williams, 2010.
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Question 68 of 88
68. Question
In addition to preventing measles, measles vaccination either prevents or attenuates subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE). Which of the following is not a characteristic of SSPE?
Correct
Hemorrhagic changes at the base of the frontal and temporal lobes characterize herpes simplex encephalitis. The incidence of SSPE, which had been the most common cause of dementia of childhood, has dramatically fallen with widespread, complete measles immunization.
Gutierrez J, Issacson RS, Koppel BS: Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis: An update. Dev Med Child Neurol 2010; 52: 901-7.
Incorrect
Hemorrhagic changes at the base of the frontal and temporal lobes characterize herpes simplex encephalitis. The incidence of SSPE, which had been the most common cause of dementia of childhood, has dramatically fallen with widespread, complete measles immunization.
Gutierrez J, Issacson RS, Koppel BS: Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis: An update. Dev Med Child Neurol 2010; 52: 901-7.
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Question 69 of 88
69. Question
A 23- y.o. man is brought into the emergency room with symptoms of increase heart rate, dilated pupils, agitation, paranoia, and auditory hallucinations. His urine test for benzoylecgonine is negative. What is the most likely etiology of his presentation?
Correct
This patient is most likely using crystal methamphetamine. The presentation is similar to cocaine, but with cocaine use, the urine would be positive for benzoylecgonine, which is the metabolite of cocaine. PCP does not cause dilated pupils. Schizophrenia in and of itself would not cause increased heart rate or dilated pupils, but otherwise may be similar.
Principles of Addiction Medicine 47th Edition ed. Reis, Fiellin, et al 2009.
Textbook of Substance Abuse Treatment, APA Press 4th Edition, ed Galantar, Kleber, 2008Incorrect
This patient is most likely using crystal methamphetamine. The presentation is similar to cocaine, but with cocaine use, the urine would be positive for benzoylecgonine, which is the metabolite of cocaine. PCP does not cause dilated pupils. Schizophrenia in and of itself would not cause increased heart rate or dilated pupils, but otherwise may be similar.
Principles of Addiction Medicine 47th Edition ed. Reis, Fiellin, et al 2009.
Textbook of Substance Abuse Treatment, APA Press 4th Edition, ed Galantar, Kleber, 2008 -
Question 70 of 88
70. Question
A psychiatrist has been following a 22 y.o. woman for an eating disorder. For six weeks after she underwent gastric bypass to alleviate obesity, she had intractable vomiting. During a subsequent visit with her psychiatrist, she was confused. Further testing revealed amnesia (particularly in an anterograde pattern), ataxia, nystagmus, and signs of a peripheral neuropathy. Which is the essential immediate treatment for the patient?
Correct
At one to six months after bariatric surgery, particularly when they have vomiting, patients are at risk for Wernicke encephalopathy and other nutritional deficiencies. In this case, she had the classic signs of Wernicke encephalopathy. In many cases, atypical features are also present. Surprisingly, Wernicke encephalopathy rarely develops in patients with anorexia with or without bulimia.
Aasheim ET: Wernicke encephalopathy after obesity surgery: A systemic review. Ann Surg 2008; 248; 718-20.
Singh S, Kumar A: Wernicke encephalopathy after obesity surgery: A systemic review. Neurology 2007; 68: 807-11.
Incorrect
At one to six months after bariatric surgery, particularly when they have vomiting, patients are at risk for Wernicke encephalopathy and other nutritional deficiencies. In this case, she had the classic signs of Wernicke encephalopathy. In many cases, atypical features are also present. Surprisingly, Wernicke encephalopathy rarely develops in patients with anorexia with or without bulimia.
Aasheim ET: Wernicke encephalopathy after obesity surgery: A systemic review. Ann Surg 2008; 248; 718-20.
Singh S, Kumar A: Wernicke encephalopathy after obesity surgery: A systemic review. Neurology 2007; 68: 807-11.
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Question 71 of 88
71. Question
All of the following statements about prescription drug abuse are true except:
Correct
Prescription drug abuse is a major epidemic resulting in loss of life now exceeding motor vehicle accidents. Its use is enhanced by its perceived safety and increased availability. Because of prescription opiates’ greater expense, people transition to heroin.
Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMHSA) Results from the 2010 National Survey on Drug Use and Health: Summary of National Findings. NSDUH Series H-41, HHS Publication No. (SMA) 11-4658, Rockville, Md, 2011.McCabe, SE, Boyd CJ, and Teter CJ: Subtypes of nonmedical prescription drug misuse. Drug Alcohol Dependence: 2009; 63-70.
Incorrect
Prescription drug abuse is a major epidemic resulting in loss of life now exceeding motor vehicle accidents. Its use is enhanced by its perceived safety and increased availability. Because of prescription opiates’ greater expense, people transition to heroin.
Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMHSA) Results from the 2010 National Survey on Drug Use and Health: Summary of National Findings. NSDUH Series H-41, HHS Publication No. (SMA) 11-4658, Rockville, Md, 2011.McCabe, SE, Boyd CJ, and Teter CJ: Subtypes of nonmedical prescription drug misuse. Drug Alcohol Dependence: 2009; 63-70.
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Question 72 of 88
72. Question
During almost every night's sleep an 80 y.o. man began to thrash about, seemed to run, and, on several occasions, beat his wife. A polysomnogram (PSG) revealed that this physical activity occurred exclusively during REM periods, which contained no paroxysmal electroencephalogram (EEG) activity. When awake, he has a normal mental status and no physical abnormalities. What is the most likely diagnosis of this sleep disturbance?
Correct
His physical outbursts during REM periods indicates REM sleep behavior disturbance. Seizures would have been reflected in paroxysmal EEG activity, such as bursts of spike-and-wave activity.
Fantini ML, Ferini-Strambi L, Montplaisir J. Idiopathic REM sleep behavior disorder. Neurology 2005; 64: 780-86
Frenette E: REM sleep behavior disorder. Med Clin North Am 2010; 94: 593-614.Incorrect
His physical outbursts during REM periods indicates REM sleep behavior disturbance. Seizures would have been reflected in paroxysmal EEG activity, such as bursts of spike-and-wave activity.
Fantini ML, Ferini-Strambi L, Montplaisir J. Idiopathic REM sleep behavior disorder. Neurology 2005; 64: 780-86
Frenette E: REM sleep behavior disorder. Med Clin North Am 2010; 94: 593-614. -
Question 73 of 88
73. Question
Which of the following is not a typical polysomnogram(PSG) change in depression?
Correct
The most consistent PSG changes in depression are decreased REM latency, increased total REM sleep time, and decreased slow wave sleep. Even with remission of symptoms, these changes may persist. If so, they are a risk factor for recurrence of depression.
Palagini L, Baglioni C, Ciapparelli, et al: REM sleep dysregulation: State of the art. Sleep Med Rev 2013;
Incorrect
The most consistent PSG changes in depression are decreased REM latency, increased total REM sleep time, and decreased slow wave sleep. Even with remission of symptoms, these changes may persist. If so, they are a risk factor for recurrence of depression.
Palagini L, Baglioni C, Ciapparelli, et al: REM sleep dysregulation: State of the art. Sleep Med Rev 2013;
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Question 74 of 88
74. Question
Acute thiamine deficiency (Wernicke's disease) from alcohol use is characterized by all of the following symptoms except:
Correct
Ataxia, confusion and ocular abnormalities are the hallmarks of acute thiamine deficiency (Wernicke’s Disease). In contrast, anterograde amnesia is a defining symptom of chronic thiamine deficiency (Korsakoff’s Dementia).
Textbook of Substance Abuse Treatment, APA Press, 4th Edition, ed: Galanter, Kleber, 2008.
Incorrect
Ataxia, confusion and ocular abnormalities are the hallmarks of acute thiamine deficiency (Wernicke’s Disease). In contrast, anterograde amnesia is a defining symptom of chronic thiamine deficiency (Korsakoff’s Dementia).
Textbook of Substance Abuse Treatment, APA Press, 4th Edition, ed: Galanter, Kleber, 2008.
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Question 75 of 88
75. Question
Which of the following developmental phases described by Erikson coincides with the concrete operations stage in the cognitive developmental schema of Piaget?
Correct
In Piaget’s cognitive development theory, the period from 7 years to puberty coincides with the concrete operational stage. Piaget defines this as the stage during which egocentric thought is replaced by operational thought and a large amount of information is dealt with using logical thinking. This is also the stage during which the child can take another’s perspective according to Piaget. In the psychodynamically-informed developmental stage theory of Erik Erikson, the stage of Industry versus Inferiority is described as extending from age 5 years -adolescence, coinciding with the onset of latency. During this phase, the child learns new skills, enters systematic instruction and discovers the joy of productivity.
Kaplan and Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 10th edition, 2007.
Incorrect
In Piaget’s cognitive development theory, the period from 7 years to puberty coincides with the concrete operational stage. Piaget defines this as the stage during which egocentric thought is replaced by operational thought and a large amount of information is dealt with using logical thinking. This is also the stage during which the child can take another’s perspective according to Piaget. In the psychodynamically-informed developmental stage theory of Erik Erikson, the stage of Industry versus Inferiority is described as extending from age 5 years -adolescence, coinciding with the onset of latency. During this phase, the child learns new skills, enters systematic instruction and discovers the joy of productivity.
Kaplan and Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 10th edition, 2007.
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Question 76 of 88
76. Question
A 22 y.o. male has decided to become a professional football player. As a child he frequently got into trouble for excessively aggressive behavior, which resolved during his teenage years. He played intramural sports in high school and college. What defense mechanism does he use?
Correct
Sublimation is a mature defense mechanism in which an individual channels unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable alternatives. In this case, the man’s unacceptable aggressive behavior has been redirected into sports, which allows him to discharge his aggressive impulses in this socially acceptable context. Displacement is a defense mechanism in which unacceptable feelings or impulses are redirected towards a less threatening object. Reaction formation is when an unacceptable thought or feeling is converted into its opposite. Projection is when one’s own unwanted or unacceptable thoughts or impulses are attributed to someone else.
Hales RE, Yudofsky SC. American Psychiatric Publishing Textbook of Clinical Psychiatry 4th ed. 2003. pp.120-124.
Incorrect
Sublimation is a mature defense mechanism in which an individual channels unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable alternatives. In this case, the man’s unacceptable aggressive behavior has been redirected into sports, which allows him to discharge his aggressive impulses in this socially acceptable context. Displacement is a defense mechanism in which unacceptable feelings or impulses are redirected towards a less threatening object. Reaction formation is when an unacceptable thought or feeling is converted into its opposite. Projection is when one’s own unwanted or unacceptable thoughts or impulses are attributed to someone else.
Hales RE, Yudofsky SC. American Psychiatric Publishing Textbook of Clinical Psychiatry 4th ed. 2003. pp.120-124.
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Question 77 of 88
77. Question
On the one-year anniversary of sustaining a massive brainstem stroke, a 65-year-old man remains with a tracheostomy and dependent on a ventilator, fed through a gastrotomy tube, unable to speak, and quadriplegic. He seems to sleep and looks toward visitors, establishing eye contact. He has resided in a nursing home ever since discharge from the hospital. His brother, who is his sole living relative, has established communication with him through a system of eye movements an eyelid blinks. One day, the brother announces that the patient has full knowledge of his condition and prognosis, and has decided to terminate his life by having the artificial ventilation withdrawn. The nursing home staff disagrees, stating that the patient is incompetent and cannot make medical decisions. A psychiatry consultation is brought in to determine if the patient possesses decisional capacity. What will the psychiatrist probably determine?
Correct
The patient is in the locked-in syndrome or state. He characteristically can communicate with eye movements and eyelid blinks. Most important, his cognitive function is preserved. Because he is in the locked-in syndrome, he retains his autonomy and decisional capacity. Most cases of locked-in syndrome result from a brainstem stroke due to an occlusion of the basilar artery. Other causes are brainstem trauma, amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), and, at least temporarily, Guillain-Barré syndrome.
Cardwell MS: Locked-in syndrome. Tex Med 2013; 109: el.
Kuehlmeyer K, Racine E, Palmour N, et al: Diagnostic and ethical challenges in disorders of consciousness and locked-in syndrome. J Neurol 2012; 259: 2076-89.Incorrect
The patient is in the locked-in syndrome or state. He characteristically can communicate with eye movements and eyelid blinks. Most important, his cognitive function is preserved. Because he is in the locked-in syndrome, he retains his autonomy and decisional capacity. Most cases of locked-in syndrome result from a brainstem stroke due to an occlusion of the basilar artery. Other causes are brainstem trauma, amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), and, at least temporarily, Guillain-Barré syndrome.
Cardwell MS: Locked-in syndrome. Tex Med 2013; 109: el.
Kuehlmeyer K, Racine E, Palmour N, et al: Diagnostic and ethical challenges in disorders of consciousness and locked-in syndrome. J Neurol 2012; 259: 2076-89. -
Question 78 of 88
78. Question
REM sleep behavior disturbance is often a risk factor for which two illnesses?
Correct
REM sleep behavior disorder often develops along with or up to 15 years before the onset of either Parkinson disease or dementia with Lewy bodies. It ultimately affects almost one-third of Parkinson disease patients. In both of these illnesses, which neurologists classify as synucleinopathies, REM sleep behavior disorder correlates with cognitive impairment.
Clasassen DO, Josephs KA, Ahlskog JE, et al: REM sleep behavior disorder preceding other aspects of synucleinopathies by up to half a century. Neurology 2010; 75: 494-500.
Sixel-Doring F, Trautmann E, Mollenhauer B, et al: Associated factors for REM sleep behavior disorder in Parkinson disease. Neurology 2011; 77: 1048-54.Incorrect
REM sleep behavior disorder often develops along with or up to 15 years before the onset of either Parkinson disease or dementia with Lewy bodies. It ultimately affects almost one-third of Parkinson disease patients. In both of these illnesses, which neurologists classify as synucleinopathies, REM sleep behavior disorder correlates with cognitive impairment.
Clasassen DO, Josephs KA, Ahlskog JE, et al: REM sleep behavior disorder preceding other aspects of synucleinopathies by up to half a century. Neurology 2010; 75: 494-500.
Sixel-Doring F, Trautmann E, Mollenhauer B, et al: Associated factors for REM sleep behavior disorder in Parkinson disease. Neurology 2011; 77: 1048-54. -
Question 79 of 88
79. Question
A young teenage boy is brought to see you for symptoms of ADHD and learning problems. You learn from the history that he was shy as a child and you notice in your mental status that there is some perseveration of speech. In your review of systems, the mother tells you that the pediatrician has remarked that his testicles are enlarged in the last few years and you notice on exam that his face seems abnormally long. You consider getting cognitive testing, as he seems to have low cognitive functioning. What other test might you consider?
Correct
This boy has the presumptive diagnosis of Fragile X, which is associated with ADHD, learning problems, some language dysfluency and social anxiety. There may be a history of infertility or autism spectrum disorder in the family. Physically, as the child grows, there is progressive elongation of the head and ears. DNA testing will reveal between 230 and >1000 trinucleotide repeats when the syndrome is present with fragility at Xq27.3. Rett Syndrome is an X-linked dominant disorder with a mutation at MECP2 and is seen in girls only – and in XXY boys – so would not likely be seen in this teenage boy. An ADOS evaluation would not be specific for Rett but the patient could score in the autistic range if she was evaluated during that part of her clinical course. Uric acid testing might help diagnose Lesch Nyhan syndrome, but the boy would have characteristic self-mutilation, spasticity and psychomotor retardation. The patient with tuberous sclerosis can present with CNS tubers; tubers are characteristically seen across the malar surface of the face and the syndrome is associated with autism, epilepsy and worsening dementia.
Chonchaiya W Schneider A Hagerman RJ (2009). Fragile X: A family of disorders. Adv Ped 2009; 56: 165-86.
Sadock BJ, Kaplan HI, Sadock VA: Kaplan & Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry: Behavioral Sciences/Clinical Psychiatry. 2007. Lippincott Williams & Wilkins: Philadelphia, p. 1142.
Warren ST Nelson DL (1994). Advances in molecular analysis of Fragile X syndrome. JAMA 1994; 21: 536-42.
Incorrect
This boy has the presumptive diagnosis of Fragile X, which is associated with ADHD, learning problems, some language dysfluency and social anxiety. There may be a history of infertility or autism spectrum disorder in the family. Physically, as the child grows, there is progressive elongation of the head and ears. DNA testing will reveal between 230 and >1000 trinucleotide repeats when the syndrome is present with fragility at Xq27.3. Rett Syndrome is an X-linked dominant disorder with a mutation at MECP2 and is seen in girls only – and in XXY boys – so would not likely be seen in this teenage boy. An ADOS evaluation would not be specific for Rett but the patient could score in the autistic range if she was evaluated during that part of her clinical course. Uric acid testing might help diagnose Lesch Nyhan syndrome, but the boy would have characteristic self-mutilation, spasticity and psychomotor retardation. The patient with tuberous sclerosis can present with CNS tubers; tubers are characteristically seen across the malar surface of the face and the syndrome is associated with autism, epilepsy and worsening dementia.
Chonchaiya W Schneider A Hagerman RJ (2009). Fragile X: A family of disorders. Adv Ped 2009; 56: 165-86.
Sadock BJ, Kaplan HI, Sadock VA: Kaplan & Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry: Behavioral Sciences/Clinical Psychiatry. 2007. Lippincott Williams & Wilkins: Philadelphia, p. 1142.
Warren ST Nelson DL (1994). Advances in molecular analysis of Fragile X syndrome. JAMA 1994; 21: 536-42.
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Question 80 of 88
80. Question
Which of the following is true of adults with ADHD?
Correct
Approximately 50% of children diagnosed with ADHD will continue into adulthood with the diagnosis. Typically, as children age into adolescence and adulthood, the gross manifestations of hyperactivity become less prominent, though restlessness can still remain as a residual symptom. Whereas DSM-IV-TR required that symptoms be present prior to the age of 7, DSM-5 only requires that symptoms (“several”) be present prior to the age of 12. In childhood, the diagnosis of ADHD is made far more often in boys than girls; adult men with ADHD seem to still outnumber women, though previously the ratio had thought to be equal; women are likely oversampled in treatment groups as they seem to preferentially seek help, making these statistics variable from study to study.
American Psychiatric Association: Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 5th Ed. 2013. American Psychiatric Association Press: Washington, D.C. pp. 59-66.
Kessler RC: The prevalence and correlates of adult ADHD in the United States: results from the national comorbidity survey replication. Am J Psychiatry 2006; 163: 716-23.
Incorrect
Approximately 50% of children diagnosed with ADHD will continue into adulthood with the diagnosis. Typically, as children age into adolescence and adulthood, the gross manifestations of hyperactivity become less prominent, though restlessness can still remain as a residual symptom. Whereas DSM-IV-TR required that symptoms be present prior to the age of 7, DSM-5 only requires that symptoms (“several”) be present prior to the age of 12. In childhood, the diagnosis of ADHD is made far more often in boys than girls; adult men with ADHD seem to still outnumber women, though previously the ratio had thought to be equal; women are likely oversampled in treatment groups as they seem to preferentially seek help, making these statistics variable from study to study.
American Psychiatric Association: Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 5th Ed. 2013. American Psychiatric Association Press: Washington, D.C. pp. 59-66.
Kessler RC: The prevalence and correlates of adult ADHD in the United States: results from the national comorbidity survey replication. Am J Psychiatry 2006; 163: 716-23.
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Question 81 of 88
81. Question
A 32 y.o. woman, Ms. L. presents to your office as a referral from her primary care doctor. He asks you to evaluate Ms. L for depression, as she has been worked up numerous times for a variety of complaints over the years including chronic back and pelvic pain, as well as bouts of nausea and vomiting. Recently she has been discharged from the hospital where she presented with abdominal pain, and headaches. Her work up once again failed to reveal a physiologic cause. She denies depression or anxiety but endorses an inability to orgasm and recent memory difficulties have kept her from keeping her job. For what type of treatment is there the best evidence?
Correct
The vignette describes a patient with classic symptoms of somatization disorder (according to DSM-IV TR): She has four pain symptom (abdominal, head, pelvic and back), two gastrointestinal complaints (N/V), a psuedoneurologic problem (memory difficulty) and a sexual complaint (anorgasmia). Since her symptoms are already chronic at the age of 32, she meets the DSM-IV TR requirement that the symptoms begin before the age of 30. In his 2007 review of treatments for somatoform disorders, Kroenke found a total of 34 randomized controlled trials. Most of the studies involved patients with somatization disorder or similar lower threshold variants. Cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) was effective in 11 of 13 studies, while antidepressants were helpful in 4 of 5 of studies. Only 1 of 3 RCTs for conversion disorder showed benefit. There were no studies of pain disorder.
Kroenke K: Efficacy of treatment for somatoform disorders: A review of randomized controlled trials. Psychosomatic Med 2007; 69:881–8.
Incorrect
The vignette describes a patient with classic symptoms of somatization disorder (according to DSM-IV TR): She has four pain symptom (abdominal, head, pelvic and back), two gastrointestinal complaints (N/V), a psuedoneurologic problem (memory difficulty) and a sexual complaint (anorgasmia). Since her symptoms are already chronic at the age of 32, she meets the DSM-IV TR requirement that the symptoms begin before the age of 30. In his 2007 review of treatments for somatoform disorders, Kroenke found a total of 34 randomized controlled trials. Most of the studies involved patients with somatization disorder or similar lower threshold variants. Cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) was effective in 11 of 13 studies, while antidepressants were helpful in 4 of 5 of studies. Only 1 of 3 RCTs for conversion disorder showed benefit. There were no studies of pain disorder.
Kroenke K: Efficacy of treatment for somatoform disorders: A review of randomized controlled trials. Psychosomatic Med 2007; 69:881–8.
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Question 82 of 88
82. Question
Which of the following pairs of psychological tests would be most helpful in identifying Reading Disorder in a 10 year old?
Correct
Learning Disorders are defined as persistent difficulties learning keystone academic skills that are chronic, well below average for age, and not attributable to intellectual disability. The full assessment of such a learning disability requires IQ testing (such as the WISC or Stanford Binet) and psychoeducational testing of the relevant learning area, for example reading (Kaufman), mathematics (standardized mathematics examination) or writing( Test of Written Language/ TOWL).
Kaplan and Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 10th edition, 2007.
Practice Parameter for the Assessment and Treatment of Children and Adolescents with Language and Learning Disorders, J Amer Acad Child Adol Psychiatry 1998 suppl; 37: 10.
Incorrect
Learning Disorders are defined as persistent difficulties learning keystone academic skills that are chronic, well below average for age, and not attributable to intellectual disability. The full assessment of such a learning disability requires IQ testing (such as the WISC or Stanford Binet) and psychoeducational testing of the relevant learning area, for example reading (Kaufman), mathematics (standardized mathematics examination) or writing( Test of Written Language/ TOWL).
Kaplan and Sadock’s Synopsis of Psychiatry, 10th edition, 2007.
Practice Parameter for the Assessment and Treatment of Children and Adolescents with Language and Learning Disorders, J Amer Acad Child Adol Psychiatry 1998 suppl; 37: 10.
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Question 83 of 88
83. Question
A 10-year-old boy with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder diagnosed at age 7 years has been successfully treated with methylphenidate. He has recently required several upward dosage adjustments due to worsening symptoms. These adjustments have failed to treat his symptoms and he is reported to be disruptive in the classroom, with recent worsening of test scores. Which of the following is the appropriate next intervention?
Correct
The following medications are approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) for the treatment of ADHD: dextroamphetamine, D- and D, L-methylphenidate, mixed salts amphetamine, and atomoxetine. The American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP) and the American Academy of Child and Adolescent Psychiatry (AACAP) have recommended stimulants as the first line of treatment for ADHD. After two failed trials of each of the two stimulant classes, it is recommended that the third line choice for ADHD treatment is atomoxetine. However atomoxetine, a noradrenergic reuptake inhibitor, can be considered as the first line medication for ADHD in individuals with an active substance abuse problem, comorbid anxiety, or tics.
Practice Parameter for the Assessment and Treatment of Children and Adolescents with Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder, J Amer Acad Child Adol Psychiatry 2007; 46: 894-921.
Incorrect
The following medications are approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) for the treatment of ADHD: dextroamphetamine, D- and D, L-methylphenidate, mixed salts amphetamine, and atomoxetine. The American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP) and the American Academy of Child and Adolescent Psychiatry (AACAP) have recommended stimulants as the first line of treatment for ADHD. After two failed trials of each of the two stimulant classes, it is recommended that the third line choice for ADHD treatment is atomoxetine. However atomoxetine, a noradrenergic reuptake inhibitor, can be considered as the first line medication for ADHD in individuals with an active substance abuse problem, comorbid anxiety, or tics.
Practice Parameter for the Assessment and Treatment of Children and Adolescents with Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder, J Amer Acad Child Adol Psychiatry 2007; 46: 894-921.
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Question 84 of 88
84. Question
Which of the following is a new criteria for substance use disorder in DSM-5?
Correct
Use in physically hazardous situations and persistent desire or unsuccessful effort to cut down have been retained from DSM-IV-TR to DSM-5. Recurrent legal problems have been deleted. The only new criteria is craving or a strong desire or urge to use the substance and can even persist in remission.
Reference: DSM IV and DSM-5.
Incorrect
Use in physically hazardous situations and persistent desire or unsuccessful effort to cut down have been retained from DSM-IV-TR to DSM-5. Recurrent legal problems have been deleted. The only new criteria is craving or a strong desire or urge to use the substance and can even persist in remission.
Reference: DSM IV and DSM-5.
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Question 85 of 88
85. Question
In regards to neural tube defects, which statement is true?
Correct
The neural tube forms in the first trimester of gestation. If the lower (caudal) end of the neural tube fails to close, the failure will cause a meningomyelocele, meningocele, or spina bifida. If the upper (cephalad) end fails to close, the failure will cause anencephaly, encephalocele, or similar defect. Supplementing breakfast cereals with folic acid or taking prenatal vitamins with folic acid has significantly lowered the incidence of neural tube defects. Nevertheless, the mother’s taking folic acid while taking medicines associated with the defect remains unsafe. Neural tube defects are readily detectable with MRI or ultrasound. Elevated levels of maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein indicate the presence of a neural tube defect. Not all mood stabilizers taken during pregnancy have been associated with neural tube defects. Valproate and, to a less extent, carbamazepine have been linked to neural tube defect. Other medical teratogens and genetic mutations have also been linked to the defect.
Rose, N, Mennuti, M, Glob. Fetal Neural Tube Defects: Diagnosis, Management, and Treatment libr. women’s med., (ISSN: 1756-2228) 2009; DOI 10.3843/GLOWM.10224
Incorrect
The neural tube forms in the first trimester of gestation. If the lower (caudal) end of the neural tube fails to close, the failure will cause a meningomyelocele, meningocele, or spina bifida. If the upper (cephalad) end fails to close, the failure will cause anencephaly, encephalocele, or similar defect. Supplementing breakfast cereals with folic acid or taking prenatal vitamins with folic acid has significantly lowered the incidence of neural tube defects. Nevertheless, the mother’s taking folic acid while taking medicines associated with the defect remains unsafe. Neural tube defects are readily detectable with MRI or ultrasound. Elevated levels of maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein indicate the presence of a neural tube defect. Not all mood stabilizers taken during pregnancy have been associated with neural tube defects. Valproate and, to a less extent, carbamazepine have been linked to neural tube defect. Other medical teratogens and genetic mutations have also been linked to the defect.
Rose, N, Mennuti, M, Glob. Fetal Neural Tube Defects: Diagnosis, Management, and Treatment libr. women’s med., (ISSN: 1756-2228) 2009; DOI 10.3843/GLOWM.10224
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Question 86 of 88
86. Question
Which of the following medicines is most closely linked to hyponatremia?
Correct
Of the choices, oxcarbazepine (most closely) and carbamazepine (second most closely) are linked with hyponatremia. One study (Dong) found serum sodium levels <128 mEq/L in 12% of patients taking oxcarbazepine and 3% of ones taking carbamazepine. The mechanism of hyponatremia probably involves renal dysfunction rather than either pituitary insufficiency or inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Risk factors include high doses of the medicine, concurrent use of other medicines, and advanced age.
Pimozide is a classic antipsychotic agent that blocks D2 dopamine receptors. Its distinguishing features are that it has an indication for treatment of Tourette’s disorder, for which it is still used, and its half-life is one of the longest of all of the antipsychotics (55 hours). As with other D2 dopamine receptor antagonists, pimozide use may be complicated by acute dystonic reactions, other extrapyramidal side effects, and the neuroleptic malignant syndrome. Likewise, it may also dangerously prolong the QTc interval.
Lithium itself does not induce hyponatremia. However, if patients taking lithium or the other medicines develop psychogenic polydipsia or take diuretic, they may develop hyponatremia.Brunton L, Parker K, Blumenthal D, et al: Goodman & Gilman’s Manual of Pharmacology and Therapeutics. McGraw Medical, New York, 2008, p307, 315
Dong X, Leppik IE, White J, et al: Hyponatremia from oxcarbazepine and carbamazepine. Neurology 2005; 65: 1976-1978
Lin CH, Lu CH, Wang FJ, et al: Risk factors of oxcarbazepine-induced hyponatremia inpatients with epilepsy. Clin Neuropharmacol 2010; 3: 293-296
Pringsheim T, Marras C. Pimozide for tics in Tourette’s syndrome. Cochrane Database System Rev 2009 (2) :CD006996
Sachedo RC, Wasserstein A, Mesenbrink PJ, et al: Effects of oxcarbazepine on sodium concentration and water handling. Ann Neurol 2002; 51: 613-620
Incorrect
Of the choices, oxcarbazepine (most closely) and carbamazepine (second most closely) are linked with hyponatremia. One study (Dong) found serum sodium levels <128 mEq/L in 12% of patients taking oxcarbazepine and 3% of ones taking carbamazepine. The mechanism of hyponatremia probably involves renal dysfunction rather than either pituitary insufficiency or inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Risk factors include high doses of the medicine, concurrent use of other medicines, and advanced age.
Pimozide is a classic antipsychotic agent that blocks D2 dopamine receptors. Its distinguishing features are that it has an indication for treatment of Tourette’s disorder, for which it is still used, and its half-life is one of the longest of all of the antipsychotics (55 hours). As with other D2 dopamine receptor antagonists, pimozide use may be complicated by acute dystonic reactions, other extrapyramidal side effects, and the neuroleptic malignant syndrome. Likewise, it may also dangerously prolong the QTc interval.
Lithium itself does not induce hyponatremia. However, if patients taking lithium or the other medicines develop psychogenic polydipsia or take diuretic, they may develop hyponatremia.Brunton L, Parker K, Blumenthal D, et al: Goodman & Gilman’s Manual of Pharmacology and Therapeutics. McGraw Medical, New York, 2008, p307, 315
Dong X, Leppik IE, White J, et al: Hyponatremia from oxcarbazepine and carbamazepine. Neurology 2005; 65: 1976-1978
Lin CH, Lu CH, Wang FJ, et al: Risk factors of oxcarbazepine-induced hyponatremia inpatients with epilepsy. Clin Neuropharmacol 2010; 3: 293-296
Pringsheim T, Marras C. Pimozide for tics in Tourette’s syndrome. Cochrane Database System Rev 2009 (2) :CD006996
Sachedo RC, Wasserstein A, Mesenbrink PJ, et al: Effects of oxcarbazepine on sodium concentration and water handling. Ann Neurol 2002; 51: 613-620
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Question 87 of 88
87. Question
J.S., a 19 y.o. college student was brought to the ER by his roommate after he was found profusely sweating, vomiting and agitated. He had been studying for exams over the past five days. His roommate noted that he was staying up most nights, and was becoming increasingly irritable, hypervigilant and easily angered. An empty, unlabeled pill bottle was found in his nightstand. In the emergency room, J.S. was agitated, and somewhat confused. He was diaphoretic, had an elevated BP, and dilated pupils. What substance was he most likely using?
Correct
Behavioral Signs and symptoms of amphetamine intoxication include initial euphoria or affective blunting that gives way to changes in sociability, hypervigilance, and interpersonal sensitivity in which individuals can become easily angered. Anxiety, tension and stereotyped behaviors can also occur. Impairment in judgment and function frequently result. Individuals can exhibit psychomotor agitation or retardation. Other clinical manifestations may include changes in heart rate and blood pressure, nausea and vomiting, and/or dilated pupils. Individuals may also present with respiratory depression, muscular weakness and/or chest pain. Weight loss is common. Confusion, seizures, dyskinesia, cardiac arrhythmias and coma can occur.
Reference: Fauman, MA, Study Guide to DSM IV TR. American Psychiatric Publishing, Inc. 2002Incorrect
Behavioral Signs and symptoms of amphetamine intoxication include initial euphoria or affective blunting that gives way to changes in sociability, hypervigilance, and interpersonal sensitivity in which individuals can become easily angered. Anxiety, tension and stereotyped behaviors can also occur. Impairment in judgment and function frequently result. Individuals can exhibit psychomotor agitation or retardation. Other clinical manifestations may include changes in heart rate and blood pressure, nausea and vomiting, and/or dilated pupils. Individuals may also present with respiratory depression, muscular weakness and/or chest pain. Weight loss is common. Confusion, seizures, dyskinesia, cardiac arrhythmias and coma can occur.
Reference: Fauman, MA, Study Guide to DSM IV TR. American Psychiatric Publishing, Inc. 2002 -
Question 88 of 88
88. Question
Which of the following is a sign of opiate withdrawal?
Correct
Signs and symptoms of opiate withdrawal can occur within minutes to several days after cessation following heavy or prolonged use, or receiving an opiate antagonist. They include stomach cramps, nausea, vomiting, and /or diarrhea. Individuals may report dysphoria, muscle aches and difficulty sleeping. Yawning, lacrimation, rhinorrhea can occur, as does pupillary dilation, piloerection, diaphoresis and elevated temperature. On PE, needle “tracks” may be visible. Seizures can occur during withdrawal from sedatives, hypnotics or alcohol.
Reference: Fauman, MA, Study Guide to DSM IV TR. American Psychiatric Publishing, Inc. 2002
Incorrect
Signs and symptoms of opiate withdrawal can occur within minutes to several days after cessation following heavy or prolonged use, or receiving an opiate antagonist. They include stomach cramps, nausea, vomiting, and /or diarrhea. Individuals may report dysphoria, muscle aches and difficulty sleeping. Yawning, lacrimation, rhinorrhea can occur, as does pupillary dilation, piloerection, diaphoresis and elevated temperature. On PE, needle “tracks” may be visible. Seizures can occur during withdrawal from sedatives, hypnotics or alcohol.
Reference: Fauman, MA, Study Guide to DSM IV TR. American Psychiatric Publishing, Inc. 2002